SAT-Practice-Test-1-with-Answer-Key-and-Scoring-Info.pdf

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The SAT

Practice

Test

Make time to take the practice test.

It is one of the best ways to get ready

for the

SAT.

After you have taken the practice test, score it

right away at sat.org/scoring.

This version of the SAT Practice Test is for students who will be taking

the digital SAT in nondigital format.

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Test begins on the next page.

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CO N T I N U E

Module

Readin

g and Writing

33 QUESTIONS

DIRECTIONS

e questions in this section address a number of important reading and writing skills. Each

question includes one or more passages, which may include a table or graph. Read each passage

and question carefully, and then choose the best answer to the question based on the passage(s).

All questions in this section are multiple-choice with four answer choices. Each question has a

single best answer.

Former astronaut Ellen Ochoa says that although she

doesn’t have a definite idea of when it might happen,

she

_______ that humans will someday need to be

able to live in other environments than those found

on Earth. This conjecture informs her interest in

future research missions to the moon.

Which choice completes the text with the most

logical and precise word or phrase?

A) demands

B) speculates

C) doubts

D) establishes

Beginning in the 1950s, Navajo Nation legislator

Annie Dodge Wauneka continuously worked to

promote public health; this

_______ effort involved

traveling throughout the vast Navajo homeland

and writing a medical dictionary for speakers of

Diné

bizaad

, the Navajo language.

Which choice completes the text with the most

logical and precise word or phrase?

A) impartial

B) offhand

C) persistent

D) mandatory

Following the principles of community-based

participatory research, tribal nations and research

institutions are equal partners in health studies

conducted on reservations. A collaboration between

the Crow Tribe and Montana State University

_______ this model: tribal citizens worked alongside

scientists to design the methodology and continue to

assist in data collection.

Which choice completes the text with the most

logical and precise word or phrase?

A) circumvents

B) eclipses

C) fabricates

D) exemplifies

The parasitic dodder plant increases its reproductive

success by flowering at the same time as the host

plant it has latched onto. In 2020, Jianqiang Wu and

his colleagues determined that the tiny dodder

achieves this _______ with its host by absorbing and

utilizing a protein the host produces when it is about

to flower.

Which choice completes the text with the most

logical and precise word or phrase?

A) synchronization

B) hibernation

C) prediction

D) moderation

Given that the conditions in binary star systems

should make planetary formation nearly impossible,

it’s not surprising that the existence of planets in

such systems has lacked _______ explanation.

Roman Rafikov and Kedron Silsbee shed light on

the subject when they used modeling to determine

a complex set of factors that could support

planets’ development.

Which choice completes the text with the most

logical and precise word or phrase?

A) a discernible

B) a straightforward

C) an inconclusive

D) an unbiased

Seminole/Muscogee director Sterlin Harjo

_______ television’s tendency to situate Native

characters in the distant past: this rejection is evident

in his series Reservation Dogs, which revolves around

teenagers who dress in contemporary styles and

whose dialogue is laced with current slang.

Which choice completes the text with the most

logical and precise word or phrase?

A) repudiates

B) proclaims

C) foretells

D) recants

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CO N T I

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In 2007, computer scientist Luis von Ahn was

working on converting printed books into a digital

format. He found that some words were distorted

enough that digital scanners couldn’t recognize

them, but most humans could easily read them.

Based on that finding, von Ahn invented a simple

security test to keep automated “bots” out of

websites. The first version of the reCAPTCHA test

asked users to type one known word and one of the

many words scanners couldn’t recognize. Correct

answers proved the users were humans and added

data to the book-digitizing project.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the

text?

A) To discuss von Ahn’s invention of reCAPTCHA

B) To explain how digital scanners work

C) To call attention to von Ahn’s book-digitizing

project

D) To indicate how popular reCAPTCHA is

The following text is from Edith Wharton’s 1905

novel The House of Mirth. Lily Bart and a companion

are walking through a park.

Lily had no real intimacy with nature, but she

had a passion for the appropriate and could be

keenly sensitive to a scene which was the fitting

background of her own sensations.

The

landscape outspread below her seemed an

enlargement of her present mood, and she found

something of herself in its calmness, its breadth,

its long free reaches. On the nearer slopes the

sugar-maples wavered like pyres of light; lower

down was a massing of grey orchards, and here

and there the lingering green of an oak-grove.

Which choice best describes the function of the

underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

A) It creates a detailed image of the physical setting

of the scene.

B) It establishes that a character is experiencing an

internal conflict.

C) It makes an assertion that the next sentence then

expands on.

D) It illustrates an idea that is introduced in the

previous sentence.

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CO N T I N

U E

A study by a team including finance professor

Madhu Veeraraghavan suggests that exposure to

sunshine during the workday can lead to overly

optimistic behavior.

Using data spanning from 1994

to 2010 for a set of US companies, the team

compared over 29,000 annual earnings forecasts

to the actual earnings later reported by those

companies. The team found that the greater the

exposure to sunshine at work in the two weeks before

a manager submitted an earnings forecast, the more

the manager’s forecast exceeded what the company

actually earned that year.

Which choice best states the function of the

underlined sentence in the overall structure of the

text?

A) To summarize the results of the team’s analysis

B) To present a specific example that illustrates the

study’s findings

C) To explain part of the methodology used in the

team’s study

D) To call out a challenge the team faced in

conducting its analysis

The following text is adapted from Edith Nesbit’s

1906 novel The Railway Children.

Mother did not spend all her time in paying dull

[visits] to dull ladies, and sitting dully at home

waiting for dull ladies to pay [visits] to her. She

was almost always there, ready to play with the

children, and read to them, and help them to do

their home-lessons. Besides this she used to write

stories for them while they were at school, and

read them aloud after tea, and she always made

up funny pieces of poetry for their birthdays and

for other great occasions.

According to the text, what is true about Mother?

A) She wishes that more ladies would visit her.

B) Birthdays are her favorite special occasion.

C) She creates stories and poems for her children.

D) Reading to her children is her favorite activity.

The following text is from Maggie Pogue Johnson’s

1910 poem “Poet of Our Race.” In this poem, the

speaker is addressing Paul Laurence Dunbar, a Black

author.

Thou, with stroke of mighty pen,

Hast told of joy and mirth,

And read the hearts and souls of men

As cradled from their birth.

The language of the flowers,

Thou hast read them all,

And e’en the little brook

Responded to thy call.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the

text?

A) To praise a certain writer for being especially

perceptive regarding people and nature

B) To establish that a certain writer has read

extensively about a variety of topics

C) To call attention to a certain writer’s careful and

elaborately detailed writing process

D) To recount fond memories of an afternoon spent

in nature with a certain writer

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CO N T I N

U E

“To You” is an 1856 poem by Walt Whitman. In the

poem, Whitman suggests that readers, whom he

addresses directly, have not fully understood

themselves, writing,

_______

Which quotation from “To You” most effectively

illustrates the claim?

A) “You have not known what you are, you have

slumber’d upon yourself / all your life, / Your

eyelids have been the same as closed most of the

time.”

B) “These immense meadows, these interminable

rivers, you are immense / and interminable as

they.”

C) “I should have made my way straight to you long

ago, / I should have blabb’d nothing but you, I

should have chanted nothing / but you.”

D) “I will leave all and come and make the hymns of

you, / None has understood you, but I

understand you.”

Born in 1891 to a Quechua-speaking family in the

Andes Mountains of Peru, Martín Chambi is today

considered to be one of the most renowned figures of

Latin American photography. In a paper for an art

history class, a student claims that Chambi’s

photographs have considerable ethnographic

value—in his work, Chambi was able to capture

diverse elements of Peruvian society, representing his

subjects with both dignity and authenticity.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support

the student’s claim?

A) Chambi took many commissioned portraits of

wealthy Peruvians, but he also produced

hundreds of images carefully documenting the

peoples, sites, and customs of Indigenous

communities of the Andes.

B) Chambi’s photographs demonstrate a high level

of technical skill, as seen in his strategic use of

illumination to create dramatic light and shadow

contrasts.

C) During his lifetime, Chambi was known and

celebrated both within and outside his native

Peru, as his work was published in places like

Argentina, Spain, and Mexico.

D) Some of the peoples and places Chambi

photographed had long been popular subjects

for Peruvian photographers.

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CO N T I

N U E

Credited Film Output of James Young Deer, Dark Cloud,

Edwin Carewe, and Lillian St. Cyr

Individual Years active

Number of films known and

commonly credited

James Young Deer 1909–1924 33 (actor), 35 (director), 10 (writer)

Dark Cloud 1910–1920 35 (actor), 1 (writer)

Edwin Carewe 1912–1934 47 (actor), 58 (director), 20 (producer), 4 (writer)

Lillian St. Cyr (Red Wing) 1908–1921 66 (actor)

Some researchers studying Indigenous actors and filmmakers in the

United States have turned their attention to the early days of cinema,

particularly the 1910s and 1920s, when people like James Young Deer,

Dark Cloud, Edwin Carewe, and Lillian St. Cyr (known professionally

as Red Wing) were involved in one way or another with numerous

films. In fact, so many films and associated records for this era have

been lost that counts of those four figures’ output should be taken as

bare minimums rather than totals; it’s entirely possible, for example,

that _______

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the

example?

A) Dark Cloud acted in significantly fewer films than did Lillian St.

Cyr, who is credited with 66 performances.

B) Edwin Carewe’s 47 credited acting roles includes only films made

after 1934.

C) Lillian St. Cyr acted in far more than 66 films and Edwin Carewe

directed more than 58.

D) James Young Deer actually directed 33 films and acted in only 10.

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CO N T I N U E

Juvenile Plants Found Growing on Bare Ground and in Patches

of Vegetation for Five Species

Species

Bare

ground

Patches of

vegetation Total

Percent found in

patches of vegetation

T. moroderi 9 13 22 59.1%

T. libanitis 83 120 203 59.1%

H. syriacim 95 106 201 52.7%

H. squamatum 218 321 539 59.6%

H. stoechas 11 12 23 52.2%

Alicia Montesinos-Navarro, Isabelle Storer, and Rocío Perez-Barrales

recently examined several plots within a diverse plant community in

southeast Spain. The researchers calculated that if individual plants

were randomly distributed on this particular landscape, only about 15%

would be with other plants in patches of vegetation. They counted the

number of juvenile plants of five species growing in patches of

vegetation and the number growing alone on bare ground and

compared those numbers to what would be expected if the plants were

randomly distributed. Based on these results, they claim that plants of

these species that grow in close proximity to other plants gain an

advantage at an early developmental stage.

Which choice best describes data from the table that support the

researchers’ claim?

A) For all five species, less than 75% of juvenile plants were growing in

patches of vegetation.

B) The species with the greatest number of juvenile plants growing in

patches of vegetation was H. stoechas.

C) For T. libanitis and T. moroderi, the percentage of juvenile plants

growing in patches of vegetation was less than what would be

expected if plants were randomly distributed.

D) For each species, the percentage of juvenile plants growing in

patches of vegetation was substantially higher than what would be

expected if plants were randomly distributed.

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CO N T I N U E

In the mountains of Brazil, Barbacenia tomentosa

and Barbacenia macrantha—two plants in the

Velloziaceae family—establish themselves on soilless,

nutrient-poor patches of quartzite rock. Plant

ecologists Anna Abrahão and Patricia de Britto Costa

used microscopic analysis to determine that the roots

of B. tomentosa and B. macrantha, which grow

directly into the quartzite, have clusters of fine hairs

near the root tip; further analysis indicated that these

hairs secrete both malic and citric acids. The

researchers hypothesize that the plants depend on

dissolving underlying rock with these acids, as the

process not only creates channels for continued

growth but also releases phosphates that provide the

vital nutrient phosphorus.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support

the researchers’ hypothesis?

A) Other species in the Velloziaceae family are

found in terrains with more soil but have root

structures similar to those of B. tomentosa and

B. macrantha.

B) Though B. tomentosa and B. macrantha both

secrete citric and malic acids, each species

produces the acids in different proportions.

C) The roots of B. tomentosa and B. macrantha

carve new entry points into rocks even when

cracks in the surface are readily available.

D) B. tomentosa and B. macrantha thrive even when

transferred to the surfaces of rocks that do not

contain phosphates.

Herbivorous sauropod dinosaurs could grow more

than 100 feet long and weigh up to 80 tons, and some

researchers have attributed the evolution of

sauropods to such massive sizes to increased plant

production resulting from high levels of atmospheric

carbon dioxide during the Mesozoic era. However,

there is no evidence of significant spikes in carbon

dioxide levels coinciding with relevant periods in

sauropod evolution, such as when the first large

sauropods appeared, when several sauropod lineages

underwent further evolution toward gigantism, or

when sauropods reached their maximum known

sizes, suggesting that

_______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A) fluctuations in atmospheric carbon dioxide

affected different sauropod lineages differently.

B) the evolution of larger body sizes in sauropods

did not depend on increased atmospheric carbon

dioxide.

C) atmospheric carbon dioxide was higher when the

largest known sauropods lived than it was when

the first sauropods appeared.

D) sauropods probably would not have evolved to

such immense sizes if atmospheric carbon

dioxide had been even slightly higher.

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CO N T I

N U E

In documents called judicial opinions, judges explain

the reasoning behind their legal rulings, and in those

explanations they sometimes cite and discuss

historical and contemporary philosophers. Legal

scholar and philosopher Anita L. Allen argues that

while judges are naturally inclined to mention

philosophers whose views align with their own

positions, the strongest judicial opinions consider

and rebut potential objections; discussing

philosophers whose views conflict with judges’ views

could therefore

_______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A) allow judges to craft judicial opinions without

needing to consult philosophical works.

B) help judges improve the arguments they put

forward in their judicial opinions.

C) make judicial opinions more comprehensible to

readers without legal or philosophical training.

D) bring judicial opinions in line with views that are

broadly held among philosophers.

Public-awareness campaigns about the need to

reduce single-use plastics can be successful, says

researcher Kim Borg of Monash University in

Australia, when these campaigns give consumers a

choice: for example, Japan achieved a 40 percent

reduction in plastic-bag use after cashiers were

instructed to ask customers whether _______

wanted a bag.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) they

B) one

C) you

D) it

In ancient Greece, an Epicurean was a follower of

Epicurus, a philosopher whose beliefs revolved

around the pursuit of pleasure. Epicurus defined

pleasure as “the absence of pain in the body and of

trouble in the _______ that all life’s virtues derived

from this absence.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) soul,” positing

B) soul”: positing

C) soul”; positing

D) soul.” Positing

British scientists James Watson and Francis Crick

won the Nobel Prize in part for their 1953 paper

announcing the double helix structure of DNA, but it

is misleading to say that Watson and Crick

discovered the double helix. _______ findings were

based on a famous X-ray image of DNA fibers,

“Photo 51,” developed by X-ray crystallographer

Rosalind Franklin and her graduate student

Raymond Gosling.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) They’re

B) It’s

C) Their

D) Its

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CO N T I

N U E

In 1937, Chinese American screen actor Anna May

Wong, who had portrayed numerous villains and

secondary characters but never a heroine, finally got

a starring role in Paramount Pictures’ Daughter of

Shanghai, a film that

_______ “expanded the range

of possibilities for Asian images on screen.”

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) critic, Stina Chyn, claims

B) critic, Stina Chyn, claims,

C) critic Stina Chyn claims

D) critic Stina Chyn, claims,

In 1637, the price of tulips skyrocketed in

Amsterdam, with single bulbs of rare varieties

selling for up to the equivalent of $200,000 in today’s

US dollars. Some historians _______ that this “tulip

mania” was the first historical instance of an asset

bubble, which occurs when investors drive prices to

highs not supported by actual demand.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) claiming

B) claim

C) having claimed

D) to claim

Researchers studying magnetosensation have

determined why some soil-dwelling roundworms in

the Southern Hemisphere move in the opposite

direction of Earth’s magnetic field when searching

for _______ in the Northern Hemisphere, the

magnetic field points down, into the ground, but in

the Southern Hemisphere, it points up, toward the

surface and away from worms’ food sources.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) food:

B) food,

C) food while

D) food

Scientists believe that, unlike most other species of

barnacle, turtle barnacles (Chelonibia testudinari)

can dissolve the cement-like secretions they use to

attach _______ to a sea turtle shell, enabling the

barnacles to move short distances across the shell’s

surface.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) it

B) themselves

C) them

D) itself

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CO N T I

N U E

The classic children’s board game Chutes and

Ladders is a version of an ancient Nepalese game,

Paramapada Sopanapata. In both games, players

encounter “good” or “bad” spaces while traveling

along a path; landing on one of the good spaces

_______ a player to skip ahead and arrive closer to

the end goal.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) allows

B) are allowing

C) have allowed

D) allow

In 1943, in the midst of World War II, mathematics

professor Grace Hopper was recruited by the

US military to help the war effort by solving complex

equations. Hopper’s subsequent career would involve

more than just _______ as a pioneering computer

programmer, Hopper would help usher in the digital

age.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) equations, though:

B) equations, though,

C) equations. Though,

D) equations though

In 1453, English King Henry VI became unfit to rule

after falling gravely ill. As a result, Parliament

appointed Richard, Third Duke of York, who had a

strong claim to the English throne, to rule as Lord

Protector. Upon recovering two years later, _______

forcing an angered Richard from the royal court and

precipitating a series of battles later known as the

Wars of the Roses.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) Henry resumed his reign,

B) the reign of Henry resumed,

C) Henry’s reign resumed,

D) it was Henry who resumed his reign,

Although novels and poems are considered distinct

literary forms, many authors have created hybrid

works that incorporate elements of both. Bernardine

Evaristo’s The Emperor's Babe, _______ is a verse

novel, a book-length narrative complete with

characters and a plot but conveyed in short, crisp

lines of poetry rather than prose.

Which choice completes the text with the most

logical transition?

A) by contrast,

B) consequently,

C) secondly,

D) for example,

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CO N T I

N U E

At two weeks old, the time their critical socialization

period begins, wolves can smell but cannot yet see or

hear. Domesticated dogs, _______ can see, hear, and

smell by the end of two weeks. This relative lack of

sensory input may help explain why wolves behave

so differently around humans than dogs do: from a

very young age, wolves are more wary and less

exploratory.

Which choice completes the text with the most

logical transition?

A) in other words,

B) for instance,

C) by contrast,

D) accordingly,

Researchers Helena Mihaljević-Brandt, Lucía

Santamaría, and Marco Tullney report that while

mathematicians may have traditionally worked

alone, evidence points to a shift in the opposite

direction. _______ mathematicians are choosing to

collaborate with their peers—a trend illustrated by a

rise in the number of mathematics publications

credited to multiple authors.

Which choice completes the text with the most

logical transition?

A) Similarly,

B) For this reason,

C) Furthermore,

D) Increasingly,

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CO N T I

N U E

While researching a topic, a student has taken the

following notes:

• Pterosaurs were flying reptiles that existed

millions of years ago.

• In a 2021 study, Anusuya Chinsamy-Turan

analyzed fragments of pterosaur jawbones located

in the Sahara Desert.

• She was initially unsure if the bones belonged to

juvenile or adult pterosaurs.

• She used advanced microscope techniques to

determine that the bones had few growth lines

relative to the bones of fully grown pterosaurs.

• She concluded that the bones belonged to

juveniles.

The student wants to present the study and its

findings. Which choice most effectively uses relevant

information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A) In 2021, Chinsamy-Turan studied pterosaur

jawbones and was initially unsure if the bones

belonged to juveniles or adults.

B) Pterosaur jawbones located in the Sahara Desert

were the focus of a 2021 study.

C) In a 2021 study, Chinsamy-Turan used advanced

microscope techniques to analyze the jawbones

of pterosaurs, flying reptiles that existed millions

of years ago.

D) In a 2021 study, Chinsamy-Turan determined

that pterosaur jawbones located in the Sahara

Desert had few growth lines relative to the bones

of fully grown pterosaurs and thus belonged to

juveniles.

While researching a topic, a student has taken the

following notes:

• African American women played prominent roles

in the Civil Rights Movement, including at the

famous 1963 March on Washington.

• Civil rights activist Anna Hedgeman, one of the

march’s organizers, was a political adviser who

had worked for President Truman.

• Civil rights activist Daisy Bates was a well-known

journalist and advocate for school desegregation.

• Hedgeman worked behind the scenes to make

sure a woman was included in the lineup of

speakers at the march.

• Bates was the sole woman to speak, delivering a

brief but memorable address to the cheering

crowd.

The student wants to compare the two women’s

contributions to the March on Washington. Which

choice most effectively uses relevant information

from the notes to accomplish this goal?

A) Hedgeman and Bates contributed to the march

in different ways; Bates, for example, delivered a

brief but memorable address.

B) Hedgeman worked in politics and helped

organize the march, while Bates was a journalist

and school desegregation advocate.

C) Although Hedgeman worked behind the scenes

to make sure a woman speaker was included,

Bates was the sole woman to speak at the march.

D) Many African American women, including Bates

and Hedgeman, fought for civil rights, but only

one spoke at the march.

STOP

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this module only.

Do not turn to any other module in the test.

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CO N T I N U E

Module

Readin

g and Writing

33 QUESTIONS

DIRECTIONS

e questions in this section address a number of important reading and writing skills. Each

question includes one or more passages, which may include a table or graph. Read each passage

and question carefully, and then choose the best answer to the question based on the passage(s).

All questions in this section are multiple-choice with four answer choices. Each question has a

single best answer.

For painter Jacob Lawrence, being

_______ was an

important part of the artistic process. Because he

paid close attention to all the details of his Harlem

neighborhood, Lawrence’s artwork captured nuances

in the beauty and vitality of the Black experience

during the Harlem Renaissance and the

Great Migration.

Which choice completes the text with the most

logical and precise word or phrase?

A) skeptical

B) observant

C) critical

D) confident

Mônica Lopes-Ferreira and others at Brazil’s

Butantan Institute are studying the freshwater

stingray species

Potamotrygon

rex to determine

whether biological characteristics such as the rays’

age and sex have _______ effect on the toxicity of

their venom—that is, to see if differences in these

traits are associated with considerable variations in

venom potency.

Which choice completes the text with the most

logical and precise word or phrase?

A) a disconcerting

B) an acceptable

C) an imperceptible

D) a substantial

Researchers have struggled to pinpoint specific

causes for hiccups, which happen when a

person’s diaphragm contracts

_______ . However,

neuroscientist Kimberley Whitehead has found that

these uncontrollable contractions may play an

important role in helping infants regulate their

breathing.

Which choice completes the text with the most

logical and precise word or phrase?

A) involuntarily

B) beneficially

C) strenuously

D) smoothly

Critics have asserted that fine art and fashion rarely

_______ in a world where artists create timeless

works for exhibition and designers periodically

produce new styles for the public to buy. Luiseño/

Shoshone-Bannock beadwork artist and designer

Jamie Okuma challenges this view: her work can be

seen in the Metropolitan Museum of Art and

purchased through her online boutique.

Which choice completes the text with the most

logical and precise word or phrase?

A) prevail

B) succumb

diverge

D) intersect

Scholarly discussions of gender in Shakespeare’s

comedies often celebrate the rebellion of the

playwright’s characters against the rigid expectations

_______ by Elizabethan society. Most of the

comedies end in marriage, with characters returning

to their socially dictated gender roles after previously

defying them, but there are some notable exceptions.

Which choice completes the text with the most

logical and precise word or phrase?

A) interjected

B) committed

C) illustrated

D) prescribed

In studying the use of external stimuli to reduce the

itching sensation caused by an allergic histamine

response, Louise Ward and colleagues found that

while harmless applications of vibration or warming

can provide a temporary distraction, such _______

stimuli actually offer less relief than a stimulus that

seems less benign, like a mild electric shock.

Which choice completes the text with the most

logical and precise word or phrase?

A) deceptive

B) innocuous

C) novel

D) impractical

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CO N T I N

U E

The province of Xoconochco was situated on the

Pacific coast, hundreds of kilometers southeast of

Tenochtitlan, the capital of the Aztec Empire.

Because Xoconochco’s location within the empire

was so

_______ , cacao and other trade goods

produced there could reach the capital only after a

long overland journey.

Which choice completes the text with the most

logical and precise word or phrase?

A) unobtrusive

B) concealed

C) approximate

D) peripheral

The following text is from Charlotte Brontë’s 1847

novel Jane Eyre. Jane works as a governess at

Thornfield Hall.

I went on with my day’s business tranquilly; but

ever and anon vague suggestions kept wandering

across my brain of reasons why I should quit

Thornfield; and I kept involuntarily framing

advertisements and pondering conjectures about

new situations: these thoughts I did not think to

check; they might germinate and bear fruit if

they could.

Which choice best states the main purpose of the

text?

A) To convey a contrast between Jane’s outward

calmness and internal restlessness

B) To emphasize Jane’s loyalty to the people she

works for at Thornfield Hall

C) To demonstrate that Jane finds her situation

both challenging and deeply fulfilling

D) To describe Jane’s determination to secure

employment outside of Thornfield Hall

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N U E

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CO N T I N

U E

Text 1

Most animals can regenerate some parts of their

bodies, such as skin. But when a three-banded

panther worm is cut into three pieces, each piece

grows into a new worm. Researchers are

investigating this feat partly to learn more about

humans’ comparatively limited abilities to

regenerate, and they’re making exciting progress. An

especially promising discovery is that both humans

and panther worms have a gene for early growth

response (EGR) linked to regeneration.

Text 2

When Mansi Srivastava and her team reported that

panther worms, like humans, possess a gene for EGR,

it caused excitement. However, as the team pointed

out, the gene likely functions very differently in

humans than it does in panther worms. Srivastava

has likened EGR to a switch that activates other

genes involved in regeneration in panther worms,

but how this switch operates in humans remains

unclear.

Based on the texts, what would the author of Text 2

most likely say about Text 1’s characterization of the

discovery involving EGR?

A) It is reasonable given that Srivastava and her

team have identified how EGR functions in both

humans and panther worms.

B) It is overly optimistic given additional

observations from Srivastava and her team.

C) It is unexpected given that Srivastava and her

team’s findings were generally met with

enthusiasm.

D) It is unfairly dismissive given the progress that

Srivastava and her team have reported.

The following text is adapted from William

Shakespeare’s 1609 poem “Sonnet 27.” The poem is

addressed to a close friend as if he were physically

present.

Weary with toil, I [hurry] to my bed,

The dear repose for limbs with travel tired;

But then begins a journey in my head

To work my mind, when body’s work’s expired:

For then my thoughts—from far where I abide—

[Begin] a zealous pilgrimage to thee,

And keep my drooping eyelids open wide,

What is the main idea of the text?

A) The speaker is asleep and dreaming about

traveling to see the friend.

B) The speaker is planning an upcoming trip to the

friend’s house.

C) The speaker is too fatigued to continue a

discussion with the friend.

D) The speaker is thinking about the friend instead

of immediately falling asleep.

The following text is adapted from Lewis Carroll’s

1889 satirical novel Sylvie and Bruno. A crowd has

gathered outside a room belonging to the Warden,

an official who reports to the Lord Chancellor.

One man, who was more excited than the rest,

flung his hat high into the air, and shouted (as

well as I could make out) “Who roar for the

Sub-Warden?” Everybody roared, but whether it

was for the Sub-Warden, or not, did not clearly

appear: some were shouting “Bread!” and some

“Taxes!”, but no one seemed to know what it was

they really wanted.

All this I saw from the open window of the

Warden’s breakfast-saloon, looking across the

shoulder of the Lord Chancellor.

“What can it all mean?” he kept repeating to

himself. “I never heard such shouting

before—and at this time of the morning, too!

And with such unanimity!”

Based on the text, how does the Lord Chancellor

respond to the crowd?

A) He asks about the meaning of the crowd’s

shouting, even though he claims to know what

the crowd wants.

B) He indicates a desire to speak to the crowd, even

though the crowd has asked to speak to the

Sub-Warden.

C) He expresses sympathy for the crowd’s demands,

even though the crowd’s shouting annoys him.

D) He describes the crowd as being united, even

though the crowd clearly appears otherwise.

O Pioneers! is a 1913 novel by Willa Cather. In the

novel, Cather portrays Alexandra Bergson as having

a deep emotional connection to her natural

surroundings: _______

Which quotation from O Pioneers! most effectively

illustrates the claim?

A) “She had never known before how much the

country meant to her. The chirping of the insects

down in the long grass had been like the sweetest

music. She had felt as if her heart were hiding

down there, somewhere, with the quail and the

plover and all the little wild things that crooned

or buzzed in the sun. Under the long shaggy

ridges, she felt the future stirring.”

B) “Alexandra talked to the men about their crops

and to the women about their poultry. She spent

a whole day with one young farmer who had

been away at school, and who was experimenting

with a new kind of clover hay. She learned a

great deal.”

C) “Alexandra drove off alone. The rattle of her

wagon was lost in the howling of the wind, but

her lantern, held firmly between her feet, made a

moving point of light along the highway, going

deeper and deeper into the dark country.”

D) “It was Alexandra who read the papers and

followed the markets, and who learned by the

mistakes of their neighbors. It was Alexandra

who could always tell about what it had cost to

fatten each steer, and who could guess the weight

of a hog before it went on the scales closer than

John Bergson [her father] himself.”

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Approximate Rates of Speech and

Information Conveyed for Five Languages

Language

Rate of speech

(syllables

per second)

Rate of information

conveyed (bits

per second)

Serbian 7.2 39.1

Spanish 7.7 42.0

Vietnamese 5.3 42.5

Thai 4.7 33.8

Hungarian 5.9 34.6

A group of researchers working in Europe, Asia, and

Oceania conducted a study to determine how quickly

different Eurasian languages are typically spoken

(in syllables per second) and how much information

they can effectively convey (in bits per second). They

found that, although languages vary widely in the

speed at which they are spoken, the amount of

information languages can effectively convey tends

to vary much less. Thus, they claim that two

languages with very different spoken rates can

nonetheless convey the same amount of information

in a given amount of time.

Which choice best describes data from the table that

support the researchers’ claim?

A) Among the five languages in the table, Thai and

Hungarian have the lowest rates of speech and

the lowest rates of information conveyed.

B) Vietnamese conveys information at

approximately the same rate as Spanish despite

being spoken at a slower rate.

C) Among the five languages in the table, the

language that is spoken the fastest is also the

language that conveys information the fastest.

D) Serbian and Spanish are spoken at approximately

the same rate, but Serbian conveys information

faster than Spanish does.

Psychologists Dacher Keltner and Jonathan Haidt

have argued that experiencing awe—a sensation of

reverence and wonder typically brought on by

perceiving something grand or powerful—can enable

us to feel more connected to others and thereby

inspire us to act more altruistically. Keltner, along

with Paul K. Piff, Pia Dietze, and colleagues, claims

to have found evidence for this effect in a recent

study where participants were asked to either gaze up

at exceptionally tall trees in a nearby grove (reported

to be a universally awe-inspiring experience) or stare

at the exterior of a nearby, nondescript building.

After one minute, an experimenter deliberately

spilled a box of pens nearby.

Which finding from the researchers’ study, if true,

would most strongly support their claim?

A) Participants who had been looking at the trees

helped the experimenter pick up significantly

more pens than did participants who had been

looking at the building.

B) Participants who helped the experimenter pick

up the pens used a greater number of positive

words to describe the trees and the building in a

postexperiment survey than did participants who

did not help the experimenter.

C) Participants who did not help the experimenter

pick up the pens were significantly more likely to

report having experienced a feeling of awe,

regardless of whether they looked at the building

or the trees.

D) Participants who had been looking at the

building were significantly more likely to notice

that the experimenter had dropped the pens than

were participants who had been looking at the

trees.

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Employment by Sector in France and the United States, 1800–2012

(% of total employment)

Year

Agriculture

in France

Manufacturing

in France

Services

in France

Agriculture

in US

Manufacturing

in US

Services

in US

1800 64 22 14 68 18 13

1900 43 29 28 41 28 31

1950 32 33 35 14 33 53

2012 3 21 76 2 18 80

Rows in table may not add up to 100 due to rounding.

Over the past two hundred years, the percentage of the population

employed in the agricultural sector has declined in both France and the

United States, while employment in the service sector (which includes

jobs in retail, consulting, real estate, etc.) has risen. However, this

transition happened at very different rates in the two countries. This

can be seen most clearly by comparing the employment by sector in

both countries in _______

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the

statement?

A) 1900 with the employment by sector in 1950.

B) 1800 with the employment by sector in 2012.

C) 1900 with the employment by sector in 2012.

D) 1800 with the employment by sector in 1900.

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Many archaeologists will tell you that categorizing

excavated fragments of pottery by style, period,

and what objects they belong to relies not only on

standard criteria, but also on instinct developed

over years of practice. In a recent study, however,

researchers trained a deep-learning computer model

on thousands of images of pottery fragments and

found that it could categorize them as accurately as a

team of expert archaeologists. Some archaeologists

have expressed concern that they might be replaced

by such computer models, but the researchers claim

that outcome is highly unlikely.

Which finding, if true, would most directly support

the researchers’ claim?

A) In the researchers’ study, the model was able to

categorize the pottery fragments much more

quickly than the archaeologists could.

B) In the researchers’ study, neither the model nor

the archaeologists were able to accurately

categorize all the pottery fragments that were

presented.

C) A survey of archaeologists showed that

categorizing pottery fragments limits the amount

of time they can dedicate to other important

tasks that only human experts can do.

D) A survey of archaeologists showed that few of

them received dedicated training in how to

properly categorize pottery fragments.

Although military veterans make up a small

proportion of the total population of the

United States, they occupy a significantly higher

proportion of the jobs in the civilian government.

One possible explanation for this disproportionate

representation is that military service familiarizes

people with certain organizational structures that are

also reflected in the civilian government bureaucracy,

and this familiarity thus _______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A) makes civilian government jobs especially

appealing to military veterans.

B) alters the typical relationship between military

service and subsequent career preferences.

C) encourages nonveterans applying for civilian

government jobs to consider military service

instead.

D) increases the number of civilian government jobs

that require some amount of military experience

to perform.

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N U E

Birds of many species ingest foods containing

carotenoids, pigmented molecules that are converted

into feather coloration. Coloration tends to be

especially saturated in male birds’ feathers, and

because carotenoids also confer health benefits,

the deeply saturated colors generally serve to

communicate what is known as an honest signal of

a bird’s overall fitness to potential mates. However,

ornithologist Allison J. Shultz and others have found

that males in several species of the tanager genus

Ramphocelus use microstructures in their feathers to

manipulate light, creating the appearance of deeper

saturation without the birds necessarily having to

maintain a carotenoid-rich diet. These findings

suggest that _______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

A) individual male tanagers can engage in honest

signaling without relying on carotenoid

consumption.

B) feather microstructures may be less effective

than deeply saturated feathers for signaling

overall fitness.

C) scientists have yet to determine why tanagers

have a preference for mates with colorful

appearances.

D) a male tanager’s appearance may function as

a dishonest signal of the individual’s overall

fitness.

When writing The Other Black Girl (2021), novelist

Zakiya Dalila Harris drew on her own experiences

working at a publishing office. The award-winning

book is Harris’s first novel, but her writing _______

honored before. At the age of twelve, she entered a

contest to have a story published in American Girl

magazine—and won.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) were

B) have been

C) has been

D) are

The Alvarez theory, developed in 1980 by physicist

Luis Walter Alvarez and his geologist son Walter

Alvarez, maintained that the secondary effects of an

asteroid impact caused many dinosaurs and other

animals to die

_______ it left unexplored the

question of whether unrelated volcanic activity might

have also contributed to the mass extinctions.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) out but

B) out, but

C) out

D) out,

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In winter, the diets of Japanese macaques, also

known as snow monkeys, are influenced more

by food availability than by food preference.

Although the monkeys prefer to eat vegetation and

land-dwelling invertebrates, those food sources may

become unavailable because of extensive snow and

ice cover,

_______ the monkeys to hunt for marine

animals in any streams that have not frozen over.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) forces

B) to force

C) forcing

D) forced

Lucía Michel of the University of Chile observed that

alkaline soils contain an insoluble form of iron that

blueberry plants cannot absorb, thus inhibiting

blueberry growth. If these plants were grown in

alkaline soil alongside grasses that aid in iron

solubilization, _______ Michel was determined to

find out.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) could the blueberries thrive.

B) the blueberries could thrive.

C) the blueberries could thrive?

D) could the blueberries thrive?

In his 1963 exhibition Exposition of Music—

Electronic Television, Korean American artist

Nam June Paik showed how television images could

be manipulated to express an artist’s perspective.

Today, Paik

_______ considered the first video artist.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) will be

B) had been

C) was

D) is

The first computerized spreadsheet, Dan Bricklin’s

VisiCalc, improved financial recordkeeping not only

by providing users with an easy means of adjusting

data in spreadsheets but also by automatically

updating all calculations that were dependent on

these _______ to VisiCalc’s release, changing a paper

spreadsheet often required redoing the entire sheet

by hand, a process that could take days.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) adjustments prior

B) adjustments, prior

C) adjustments. Prior

D) adjustments and prior

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In order to prevent nonnative fish species from

moving freely between the Mediterranean and Red

Seas, marine biologist Bella Galil has proposed that a

saline lock system be installed along the Suez Canal

in Egypt’s Great Bitter Lakes. The lock would

increase the salinity of the lakes and

_______ a

natural barrier of water most marine creatures would

be unable to cross.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) creates

B) create

C) creating

D) created

Despite being cheap, versatile, and easy to produce,

_______ they are made from nonrenewable

petroleum, and most do not biodegrade in landfills.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) there are two problems associated with

commercial plastics:

B) two problems are associated with commercial

plastics:

C) commercial plastics’ two associated problems are

that

D) commercial plastics have two associated

problems:

Stomata, tiny pore structures in a leaf that absorb

gases needed for plant growth, open when guard cells

surrounding each pore swell with water. In a pivotal

2007 article, plant cell _______ showed that lipid

molecules called phosphatidylinositol phosphates are

responsible for signaling guard cells to open stomata.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms

to the conventions of Standard English?

A) biologist, Yuree Lee

B) biologist Yuree Lee,

C) biologist Yuree Lee

D) biologist, Yuree Lee,

Small, flat structures called spatulae are found at the

tips of the hairs on a spider’s leg. These spatulae

temporarily bond with the atoms of whatever they

touch. _______ spiders are able to cling to and climb

almost any surface.

Which choice completes the text with the most

logical transition?

A) For instance,

B) However,

C) Similarly,

D) As a result,

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In November 1934, Amrita Sher-Gil was living in

what must have seemed like the ideal city for a

young artist: Paris. She was studying firsthand the

color-saturated style of France’s modernist masters

and beginning to make a name for herself as a

painter.

_______ Sher-Gil longed to return to her

childhood home of India; only there, she believed,

could her art truly flourish.

Which choice completes the text with the most

logical transition?

A) Still,

B) Therefore,

C) Indeed,

D) Furthermore,

Before California’s 1911 election to approve a

proposition granting women the right to vote,

activists across the state sold tea to promote the cause

of suffrage. In San Francisco, the Woman’s Suffrage

Party sold Equality Tea at local fairs. _______ in

Los Angeles, activist Nancy Tuttle Craig, who ran

one of California’s largest grocery store firms,

distributed Votes for Women Tea.

Which choice completes the text with the most

logical transition?

A) For example,

B) To conclude,

C) Similarly,

D) In other words,

While researching a topic, a student has taken the

following notes:

• The Seikan Tunnel is a rail tunnel in Japan.

• It connects the island of Honshu to the island of

Hokkaido.

• It is roughly 33 miles long.

• The Channel Tunnel is a rail tunnel in Europe.

• It connects Folkestone, England, to Coquelles,

France.

• It is about 31 miles long.

The student wants to compare the lengths of the two

rail tunnels. Which choice most effectively uses

relevant information from the notes to accomplish

this goal?

A) Some of the world’s rail tunnels, including one

tunnel that extends from Folkestone, England, to

Coquelles, France, are longer than 30 miles.

B) The Seikan Tunnel is roughly 33 miles long,

while the slightly shorter Channel Tunnel is

about 31 miles long.

C) The Seikan Tunnel, which is roughly 33 miles

long, connects the Japanese islands of Honshu

and Hokkaido.

D) Both the Seikan Tunnel, which is located in

Japan, and the Channel Tunnel, which is located

in Europe, are examples of rail tunnels.

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CO N T I

N U E

While researching a topic, a student has taken the

following notes:

• Jon Ching is a Los Angeles-based painter.

• He uses the term “flauna” to describe the plant-

animal hybrids that he depicts in his surreal

paintings.

• “Flauna” is a combination of the words “flora” and

“fauna.”

• His painting Nectar depicts a parrot with leaves

for feathers.

• His painting Primaveral depicts a snow leopard

whose fur sprouts flowers.

The student wants to provide an explanation and

example of “flauna.” Which choice most effectively

uses relevant information from the notes to

accomplish this goal?

A) The term “flauna,” used by Los Angeles-based

painter Jon Ching, is a combination of the words

“flora” and “fauna.”

B) Jon Ching uses the term “flauna,” a combination

of the words “flora” and “fauna,” to describe the

subjects of his surreal paintings: plant-animal

hybrids such as a parrot with leaves for feathers.

C) Jon Ching, who created Nectar, refers to the

subjects of his paintings as “flauna.”

D) The subjects of Nectar and Primaveral are types

of “flauna,” a term that the paintings’ creator,

Jon Ching, uses when describing his surreal

artworks.

While researching a topic, a student has taken the

following notes:

• In the midst of the US Civil War, Susie Taylor

escaped slavery and fled to Union-army-occupied

St. Simons Island off the Georgia coast.

• She began working for an all-Black army regiment

as a nurse and teacher.

• In 1902, she published a book about the time she

spent with the regiment.

• Her book was the only Civil War memoir to be

published by a Black woman.

• It is still available to readers in print and online.

The student wants to emphasize the uniqueness of

Taylor’s accomplishment. Which choice most

effectively uses relevant information from the notes

to accomplish this goal?

A) Taylor fled to St. Simons Island, which was then

occupied by the Union army, for whom she

began working.

B) After escaping slavery, Taylor began working for

an all-Black army regiment as a nurse and

teacher.

C) The book Taylor wrote about the time she spent

with the regiment is still available to readers in

print and online.

D) Taylor was the only Black woman to publish a

Civil War memoir.

STOP

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this module only.

Do not turn to any other module in the test.

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CO N T I N U E

Module

Math

QUESTIONS

DIRECTIONS

The questions in this section address a

number

important

math skills.

Use

a calculator

permitted for all questions.

NOTES

Unless otherwise indicated:

• All variables and expressions represent

real

numbers.

• Figures provided are drawn

scale.

• All figures lie in a plane.

• The domain

a given function

the

set

all real numbers x

for

which f(x)

a real number.

REFERENCE

=nr

C=2nr

A =

Special Right Triangles

4/3

⅓

V =

⅓

The

number

degrees

arc in a circle

360.

The

number

radians

arc in a circle

2n.

The sum

the

measures in degrees

the

angles

a triangle

180.

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CO N T I N U E

For multiple-choice questions, solve each problem, choose the correct

answer from

the

choices provided, and then circle your answer in this book.

Circle only one answer for each question. If you change your mind, completely

erase the circle.

You

will

not

get

credit

for

questions

with

more than one

answer circled, or

for

questions

with

no answers circled.

For student-produced response questions, solve each problem and write

your answer

under

the

question in

the

test

book

described below.

• Once you've written your answer, circle

clearly.

You

will

not

receive credit

for

anything

written

outside

the

circle, or

for

any questions

with

more than

one circled answer.

•

you find more than one correct answer, write and circle only one answer.

• Your answer

can

5 characters

for

a positive answer and up

6 characters (including the negative sign) for a negative answer,

but

no more.

•

your answer

a fraction

that

too

long (over 5 characters

for

positive,

6 characters

for

negative), write

the

decimal equivalent.

•

your answer

a decimal

that

too

long (over 5 characters for positive,

6 characters

for

negative), truncate

or round at the

fourth

digit.

•

your answer

a mixed number (such

write

improper

fraction (7/2) or its decimal equivalent

•

Don't

include symbols such

a percent sign, comma, or dollar sign in

your circled answer.

What is 10% of 470?

A) 37

B) 47

C) 423

D) 460

4x + 6 = 18

Which equation has the same solution as the given

equation?

4x = 108

4x = 24

4x = 12

4x = 3

The total cost, in dollars, to rent a surfboard consists

of a

$25

service fee and a

$10

per hour rental fee. A

person rents a surfboard for t hours and intends to

spend a maximum of

$75

to rent the surfboard.

Which inequality represents this situation?

t10 ≤ 75

10 + 25t ≤ 75

25t ≤ 75

25 + 10t ≤ 75

The function g is defined by

g x x= + 9

( )

. For

which value of x is

g(x) = 25

A) 4

B) 5

C) 9

D) 13

Each face of a fair 14-sided die is labeled with a

number from 1 through 14, with a different number

appearing on each face. If the die is rolled one time,

what is the probability of rolling a 2?

A printer produces posters at a constant rate of

42 posters per minute. At what rate, in posters

per hour, does the printer produce the posters?

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CO N T I N U E

The function f is defined by the equation

f x x= 7 + 2( )

. What is the value of

f x( )

when

x = 4

A teacher is creating an assignment worth 70 points.

The assignment will consist of questions worth

1 point and questions worth 3 points. Which

equation represents this situation, where x represents

the number of 1-point questions and y represents the

number of 3-point questions?

xy4 = 70

x y4( + ) = 70

x y3 + = 70

x y+ 3 = 70

Right triangles

LMN

and

PQR

are similar, where L

and M correspond to P and Q, respectively. Angle M

has a measure of

53°

. What is the measure of

angle Q ?

37°

53°

127°

143°

y x= -3

x y4 + = 15

The solution to the given system of equations

(x, y)

. What is the value of x ?

A) 1

B) 5

C) 15

D) 45

Which of the following equations is the most

appropriate linear model for the data shown in the

scatterplot?

-1.9 - 10.1

-1.9 + 10.1

= 1.9 - 10.1

1.9 + 10.1

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CO N T I N U E

The graph of

f x= ( )

is shown, where the

function f is defined by

x ax bx cx d( )

= + + +

3 2

and a, b, c, and d are constants. For how many

values of x does

x = 0( )

A) One

B) Two

C) Three

D) Four

Vivian bought party hats and cupcakes for $71. Each

package of party hats cost $3, and each cupcake cost

$1. If Vivian bought 10 packages of party hats, how

many cupcakes did she buy?

z+ 10 - 24 = 0

What is one of the solutions to the given equation?

Bacteria are growing in a liquid growth medium.

There were 300,000 cells per milliliter during an

initial observation. The number of cells per milliliter

doubles every 3 hours. How many cells per milliliter

will there be 15 hours after the initial observation?

A) 1,500,000

B) 2,400,000

C) 4,500,000

D) 9,600,000

Which expression is equivalent to

y x y6 + 12

2 2 2

y x6 2

2 2 6

( )

y x6

2 2 4

( )

y x6 + 2

2 2 6

(

)

y x6 + 2

2 2 4

(

)

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CO N T I N U E

A neighborhood consists of a 2-hectare park and a

35-hectare residential area. The total number of

trees in the neighborhood is 3,934. The equation

x y2 + 35 = 3,934

represents this situation. Which of

the following is the best interpretation of x in this

context?

A) The average number of trees per hectare in

the park

B) The average number of trees per hectare in

the residential area

C) The total number of trees in the park

D) The total number of trees in the residential area

The graph shows the relationship between the

number of shares of stock from Company A, x, and

the number of shares of stock from Company B, y,

that Simone can purchase. Which equation could

represent this relationship?

x= 8 + 12

y8 + 12 = 480

x= 12 + 8

y12 + 8 = 480

Circle A has a radius of

and circle B has a radius

129

, where n is a positive constant. The area of

circle

B is how many times the area of circle A?

A) 43

B) 86

C) 129

D) 1,849

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CO N T I N U E

Data value Frequency

10 9

11 11

12 9

13 0

14 6

The frequency table summarizes the 57 data values in

a data set. What is the maximum data value in the

data set?

A circle in the

-plane has a diameter with

endpoints

2, 4()

and

()2, 14

. An equation of this

circle is

xyr(−2) + ( −9) =

222

, where r is a positive

constant. What is the value of r ?

The measure of angle R is

π2

radians. The measure

of angle T is

π5

radians greater than the measure of

angle R. What is the measure of angle T, in degrees?

A) 75

B) 120

C) 195

D) 390

A certain town has an area of

4.36

square miles.

What is the area, in square yards, of this town?

(1 mile = 1,760 yards)

A) 404

B) 7,674

C) 710,459

D) 13,505,536

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CONTINUE

x y

18 130

23 160

26 178

For line h, the table shows three values of x and their

corresponding values of y. Line k is the result of

translating line h down 5 units in the

-plane.

What is the x-intercept of line k?

−

, 0













−

, 0













−

, 0













−

, 0













In the xy-plane, the graph of the equation

y x x= − + 9 − 100

intersects the line

y c=

exactly one point. What is the value of c?

−

481

−100

−

319

−

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CO N T I N U E

x y2 + 3 = 7

x y10 + 15 = 35

For each real number r, which of the following

points lies on the graph of each equation in the

xy-plane for the given system?

r r

+ 7, −

+ 35













r−

























, −













The perimeter of an equilateral triangle is

624 centimeters. The height of this triangle is

k 3

centimeters, where k is a constant. What is the

value of k?

STOP

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this module only.

Do not turn to any other module in the test.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

No Test Material On This Page

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CO N T I N U E

Module

Math

QUESTIONS

DIRECTIONS

The questions in this section address a

number

important

math skills.

Use

a calculator

permitted for all questions.

NOTES

Unless otherwise indicated:

• All variables and expressions represent

real

numbers.

• Figures provided are drawn

scale.

• All figures lie in a plane.

• The domain

a given function

the

set

all real numbers

for

which

f(x)

a real number.

REFERENCE

=nr

C=2nr

A =

Special Right Triangles

4/3

⅓

V =

The

number

degrees

arc in a circle

360.

The

number

radians

arc in a circle

2n.

The sum

the

measures in degrees

the

angles

a triangle

180.

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CO N T I N U E

For multiple-choice questions, solve each problem, choose the correct

answer from

the

choices provided, and then circle your answer in this book.

Circle only one answer for each question. If you change your mind, completely

erase the circle.

You

will

not

get

credit

for

questions

with

more than one

answer circled, or

for

questions

with

no answers circled.

For student-produced response questions, solve each problem and write

your answer

under

the

question in

the

test

book

described below.

• Once you've written your answer, circle

clearly.

You

will

not

receive credit

for

anything

written

outside

the

circle, or

for

any questions

with

more than

one circled answer.

•

you find more than one correct answer, write and circle only one answer.

• Your answer

can

5 characters

for

a positive answer and up

6 characters (including the negative sign) for a negative answer,

but

no more.

•

your answer

a fraction

that

too

long (over 5 characters

for

positive,

6 characters

for

negative), write

the

decimal equivalent.

•

your answer

a decimal

that

too

long (over 5 characters for positive,

6 characters

for

negative), truncate

or round at the

fourth

digit.

•

your answer

a mixed number (such

write

improper

fraction (7/2) or its decimal equivalent

•

Don't

include symbols such

a percent sign, comma, or dollar sign in

your circled answer.

Tilly earns p dollars for every w hours of work.

Which expression represents the amount of money,

in dollars, Tilly earns for

w39

hours of work?

p39

p + 39

p - 39

For a training program, Juan rides his bike at an

average rate of 5.7 minutes per mile. Which

function m models the number of minutes it will take

Juan to ride x miles at this rate?

m x

5.7

( )

m x x= + 5.7( )

m x x= - 5.7( )

m x x= 5.7( )

= 12

x y−3 + = −6

The solution to the given system of equations

x y( , )

. What is the value of y ?

−3

s t= 40 + 3

The equation gives the speed s, in miles per hour, of

a certain car t seconds after it began to accelerate.

What is the speed, in miles per hour, of the car

5 seconds after it began to accelerate?

A) 40

B) 43

C) 45

D) 55

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CO N T I N U E

Note: Figure

not

drawn

scale.

For the right triangle shown,

= 4

and

= 5

Which expression represents the value of c

+ 5

(

4)(5)

+ 5

2 2

4 + 5 = 165

What is the solution to the given equation?

The x-intercept of the graph shown is

(

. What is

the value of x ?

The function f is defined by

x x=

− 2( )

. What

is the y-intercept of the graph of

f x= ( )

in the

xy-plane?

−

2, 0( )

, −2( )

























Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CO N T I N U E

The function f is defined by

fx x() = 7

the

xy-plane, the graph of

yg x=( )

is the result of

shifting the graph of

yf x=( )

down 2 units. Which

equation defines function g ?

gx x() =

gx x() = 7

gx x() = 7 + 2

gx x() = 7 −2

x +7 = 10

xy+7 =

()

Which ordered pair

xy,()

is a solution to the given

system of equations?

3, 100()

3, 3()

3, 10()

3, 70()

Which expression is equivalent

xx x x7+ 7 − 6 −3

() ()

xx+10

xx−13 + 10

xx−13 + 4

xx+4

The function p is defined by

pn n=7

()

. What is the

value of n when

pn()

is equal to 56?

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Note: Figure

not

drawn

scale.

In the figure shown, line c intersects parallel lines s

and t. What is the value of x ?

A list of 10 data values is shown.

6, 8, 16, 4, 17, 26, 8, 5, 5, 5

What is the mean of these data?

The equation

t( ) = 5(1.8)

gives the estimated

number of employees at a restaurant, where t is the

number of years since the restaurant opened. Which

of the following is the best interpretation of the

number 5 in this context?

A) The estimated number of employees when the

restaurant opened

B) The increase in the estimated number of

employees each year

C) The number of years the restaurant has been

open

D) The percent increase in the estimated number of

employees each year

x x= + 55

( )

What is the minimum value of the given function?

A) 0

B) 55

C) 110

D) 3,025

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CO N T I N U E

Each year, the value of an investment increases by

0.49% of its value the previous year. Which of the

following functions best models how the value of the

investment changes over time?

A) Decreasing exponential

B) Decreasing linear

C) Increasing exponential

D) Increasing linear

The population of Greenville increased by

from 2015 to 2016. If the 2016 population is k times

the 2015 population, what is the value of k ?

A) 0.07

B) 0.7

C) 1.07

D) 1.7

Which expression is equivalent to

where

a > 0

13212

132144

132121

13211

An event planner is planning a party. It costs the

event planner a onetime fee of

$35

to rent the venue

and

$10.25

per attendee. The event planner has a

budget of

$200

. What is the greatest number of

attendees possible without exceeding the budget?

x4 − 4 = 112

, what is the positive value of

x − 1

A cube has an edge length of 68 inches. A solid

sphere with a radius of 34 inches is inside the cube,

such that the sphere touches the center of each face

of the cube. To the nearest cubic inch, what is the

volume of the space in the cube not taken up by the

sphere?

A) 149,796

B) 164,500

C) 190,955

D) 310,800

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CO N T I N U E

What is the diameter of the circle in the

-plane

with equation

x y( − 5) + ( − 3) = 16

2 2

A) 4

B) 8

C) 16

D) 32

For the exponential function f, the value of

f (1)

is k,

where k is a constant. Which of the following

equivalent forms of the function f shows the value of

k as the coefficient or the base?

f x( ) = 50(1.6)

x+1

f x( ) = 80(1.6)

f x( ) = 128(1.6)

x−1

f x( ) = 204.8(1.6)

x−2

A model estimates that at the end of each year

from 2015 to 2020, the number of squirrels in a

population was

150%

more than the number of

squirrels in the population at the end of the previous

year. The model estimates that at the end of 2016,

there were 180 squirrels in the population. Which of

the following equations represents this model, where

n is the estimated number of squirrels in the

population t years after the end of 2015 and

t ≤ 5

n = 72(1.5)

n = 72(2.5)

n = 180(1.5)

n = 180(2.5)

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CO N T I N U E

x y5 + 7 = 1

ax by+ = 1

In the given pair of equations, a and b are constants.

The graph of this pair of equations in the

xy-plane is

a pair of perpendicular lines. Which of the following

pairs of equations also represents a pair of

perpendicular lines?

x y10 + 7 = 1

ax by− 2 = 1

x y10 + 7 = 1

ax by+ 2 = 1

x y10 + 7 = 1

ax by2 + = 1

x y5 − 7 = 1

ax by+ = 1

x x c− 34 + = 0

In the given equation, c is a constant. The equation

has no real solutions if

c n >

. What is the least

possible value of n?

STOP

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this module only.

Do not turn to any other module in the test.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

No Test Material On This Page

Test

Material

This

Page

Test

Material

This

Page

Test

Material

This

Page

Test

Material

This

Page

The

SAT

GENERAL

DIRECTIONS

•

You

may work on only one module

a time.

• If you finish a module before time is called,

check

your

work

that

module only.

You

may

NOT

turn

any

other

module.

MARKING

YOUR ANSWERS

•

sure

answer your questions properly in this

book

• Circle only one answer

each question. If you change your mind, completely

erase the circle.

You

will

not

get

credit

for

questions with more than one answer

circled,

for

questions with no answers circled.

USING

YOUR

TEST

BOOK

•

You

may use

the

test

book

for

scratch work.

•

You

may

not

fold

remove pages

portions

a page from this book,

take the

book

from

the

testing room.

WF2P0001

The SAT

Practice

Test

ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

These answer explanations are for students taking the

digital SAT in nondigital format.

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

2 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

Reading and Writing

Module 1

(33 questions)

QUESTION 1

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s

discussion of Ochoa’s prediction that humans will one day need to live in places

other than Earth. As used in this context, “speculates” would mean puts forward

an idea without firm evidence. The text states that Ochoa “doesn’t have a

definite idea” about when humans might need to live in other environments and

characterizes Ochoa’s prediction as a “conjecture,” or a conclusion presented

without convincing evidence. This context indicates that Ochoa speculates when

she makes this prediction.

Choice A is incorrect because saying that Ochoa “demands,” or insists or

requires, that humans will one day need to live in other environments than Earth’s

wouldn’t make sense in context. The text indicates that she’s unsure about

the timing but hypothesizes that it will someday happen. Choice C is incorrect

because saying that Ochoa “doubts,” or questions or disbelieves, that humans

will one day need to live in other environments than Earth’s wouldn’t make sense

in context. The text indicates that although Ochoa is unsure about the timing,

she hypothesizes that humans will need to live in places other than Earth and

encourages research into future travel to the moon. Choice D is incorrect because

saying that Ochoa “establishes,” or proves, that humans will one day need to

live in other environments than Earth’s wouldn’t make sense in context. Rather

than stating that Ochoa discusses her idea with certainty and supports it with

evidence, the text indicates that Ochoa is unsure about when humans might need

to live in other environments.

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

3 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 2

Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s

discussion of Annie Dodge Wauneka’s work as a Navajo Nation legislator. As used

in this context, “persistent” means existing continuously. The text states that

Wauneka “continuously worked to promote public health,” traveling extensively

and authoring a medical dictionary; this indicates that Wauneka’s effort was

persistent.

Choice A is incorrect because describing Wauneka’s effort related to public

health as “impartial,” or not partial or biased and treating all things equally,

wouldn’t make sense in context. The text suggests that Wauneka’s continuous

work was partial in one way, as she focused specifically on promoting public

health throughout the Navajo homeland and to speakers of the Navajo language.

Choice B is incorrect because the text emphasizes that Wauneka’s effort to

promote public health as a Navajo Nation legislator was continuous and extensive,

involving wide travels and the authoring of a medical dictionary. Because this

work clearly involved care and dedication, it wouldn’t make sense to describe it

as “offhand,” or casual and informal. Choice D is incorrect because nothing in the

text suggests that Wauneka’s effort to promote public health was “mandatory,”

or required by law or rule, even though Wauneka was a Navajo Nation legislator.

Rather than suggesting that Wauneka’s effort was required for any reason, the

text emphasizes the continuous and extensive nature of her work.

QUESTION 3

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s

discussion of the collaboration between the Crow Tribe and Montana State

University. As used in this context, “exemplifies” means demonstrates. The text

conveys how the Crow Tribe–Montana State University collaboration serves to

illustrate the model of community-based participatory research introduced earlier

in the text and expanded on later in the text.

Choice A is incorrect because referring to “circumvents,” or avoids, wouldn’t make

sense in context. The text suggests that the Crow Tribe–Montana State University

collaboration serves as an example of the principles of community-based

participatory research, not that the collaboration evades this model. ChoiceB

is incorrect because referring to “eclipses,” or overshadows, wouldn’t make

sense in context. The text describes the Crow Tribe–Montana State University

collaboration as an equal partnership, which indicates that it’s an example of the

community-based participatory research model, not that it overshadows the

model. Choice C is incorrect because saying that the collaboration “fabricates,”

or creates, the model wouldn’t make sense in context. The text indicates that the

Crow Tribe–Montana State University collaboration serves as an example of the

model, not that it created the model.

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

4 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 4

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s

discussion of a relationship between the dodder plant and its host plant. As used

in this context, “synchronization” means the act of things happening at the same

time. The text indicates that the dodder and its host plant flower in unison and that

this synchronization occurs because the dodder makes use of a protein produced

by the host shortly before flowering.

Choice B is incorrect because referring to “hibernation,” or the state of being

dormant or inactive, wouldn’t make sense in context. The text focuses on

something the dodder plant actively engages in—making use of a protein and

producing flowers. Choice C is incorrect because stating that the dodder plant

and its host engage together in “prediction,” or the act of declaring or indicating

something in advance, wouldn’t make sense in context. Rather than indicating

that the dodder plant and its host plant make a prediction about flowering activity,

the text suggests that the host produces a protein as part of its regular flowering

process and that the dodder then absorbs and uses that protein to flower at the

same time. Choice D is incorrect because referring to “moderation,” or the act

of causing something to become less intense or extreme, wouldn’t make sense

in context. Although the text states that the dodder plant absorbs and uses a

protein made by its host plant, it doesn’t suggest that the dodder lessens the host

plant’s flowering activity; the two plants simply flower in unison.

QUESTION 5

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s

description of efforts to explain the existence of planets in binary star systems.

As used in this context, describing an explanation as “a straightforward” one

would mean that the explanation is direct and uncomplicated. The text asserts

that since it should be “nearly impossible” for planets to form in binary star

systems, it’s “not surprising” that there isn’t a straightforward explanation for

the existence of planets in such systems; the fact that one potential approach

involves “complex” factors offers further contextual support for this idea.

Choice A is incorrect because it would not make sense in context to say that

there isn’t “a discernible” explanation—meaning an explanation capable of being

perceived—for the existence of planets in binary star systems. The text discusses

just such an explanation offered by Roman Rafikov and Kedron Silsbee, which

indicates that their explanation can be discerned. Choice C is incorrect because

the text emphasizes how difficult it is to explain the existence of planets in

binary star systems, suggesting that the situation isn’t marked by the lack of “an

inconclusive” explanation—an explanation that does not resolve the issue—but

rather that if any explanations have been offered, they’ve likely been inconclusive

ones. Choice D is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that there is a

lack of “an unbiased,” or impartial and unprejudiced, explanation for the existence

of planets in binary star systems. The text indicates that it’s difficult to explain the

existence of planets in such systems and it describes one attempt to do so, but

there is no evidence that explanations from Roman Rafikov and Kedron Silsbee or

others are biased.

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

5 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 6

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s

discussion of Sterlin Harjo’s approach to representing Native characters on

television. As used in this context, “repudiates” means rejects or refuses to have

anything to do with. The text indicates that television shows tend to depict Native

characters as living long ago, but that Harjo’s series Reservation Dogs focuses

on Native teenagers in the present day, representing a “rejection” of the typical

approach to depicting Native characters. This context thus indicates that Harjo

repudiates television’s general tendency regarding Native characters.

Choice B is incorrect because the text describes Harjo’s “rejection” of the typical

approach to representing Native characters on television, so it wouldn’t make sense

to say that Harjo “proclaims,” or declares or affirms, television’s general tendency

regarding Native characters. Harjo is described as refusing to follow the pattern

of depicting Native characters in the distant past, not as proclaiming that pattern.

Choice C is incorrect because the text describes television’s tendency to represent

Native characters in the distant past as something that is already occurring, not

as something that Harjo “foretells,” or predicts will happen in the future. The text is

focused on Harjo’s “rejection” of this pattern, not on any predictions he may have

about it. Choice D is incorrect because saying that Harjo “recants” something would

mean that he withdraws a previously held belief, and it wouldn’t make sense to say

that Harjo recants television’s tendency to represent Native characters as living in

the past. No beliefs previously held by Harjo are mentioned. Additionally, a tendency

isn’t a belief and thus isn’t something that can be recanted.

QUESTION 7

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately states the main purpose

of the text. After providing a brief introduction to computer scientist Luis von

Ahn, the text focuses on discussing how von Ahn’s digitization work led to the

invention of a digital security test known as reCAPTCHA.

Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t address how digital scanners

work. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text mentions von Ahn’s book-digitizing

project, that information is provided as a detail, not as the main purpose of the

text. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t provide any indication of

reCAPTCHA’s popularity; instead, it describes reCAPTCHA’s origin.

QUESTION 8

Choice D is the best answer because it best describes how the underlined

sentence functions in the text as a whole. The first sentence of the text establishes

that Lily can be “keenly sensitive to” scenes that serve as a “fitting background”

for her feelings—that is, she’s very aware of when a setting seems to reflect her

mood. The next sentence, which is underlined, then demonstrates this awareness:

Lily views the landscape she’s in as a large-scale reflection of her current

mood, identifying with elements such as its calmness. Thus, the function of the

underlined sentence is to illustrate an idea introduced in the previous sentence.

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

6 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

Choice A is incorrect because the underlined sentence describes the scene

only in very general terms, referring to its calmness, breadth, and long stretches

of land. It’s the next sentence that adds specific details about colors, light, and

various trees nearby. Choice B is incorrect because nothing in the underlined

sentence suggests that Lily is experiencing an internal conflict. In fact, the

sentence indicates that Lily thinks the landscape reflects her own feeling of

calmness. Choice C is incorrect because the only assertion in the underlined

sentence is that Lily feels that broad aspects of the landscape, such as its

calmness, reflect her current mood, and that assertion isn’t expanded on in the

next sentence. Instead, the next sentence describes specific details of the scene

without connecting them to Lily’s feelings.

QUESTION 9

Choice C is the best answer because it best describes how the underlined

sentence functions in the text as a whole. The first sentence presents the

implications of Veeraraghavan’s team’s study: sunshine exposure during work

hours can cause overly optimistic behavior. The underlined sentence then

describes the data the team consulted and how they were used (comparing

predictions about earnings to what the companies actually earned), and the final

sentence presents what the team found in their examination of the data. Thus, the

underlined sentence mainly functions to explain part of the methodology used in

the team’s study.

Choice A is incorrect because the underlined sentence explains in part how the

team conducted their analysis of the effect of sunshine but doesn’t address what

the team found; a broad summary is instead given in the other two sentences.

Choice B is incorrect because the underlined sentence doesn’t present any

specific examples from the team’s comparisons of 29,000 earnings predictions to

actual earnings; it simply explains in part how the team conducted their analysis.

Choice D is incorrect because the underlined sentence simply explains in part

how the team conducted their analysis; the text never mentions any challenges

that the team encountered in their study.

QUESTION 10

Choice C is the best answer because it describes something that is true of

Mother, as presented in the text. The text indicates that in addition to other

activities, Mother writes stories for her children while they are at school and

makes up “funny pieces of poetry” for certain occasions.

Choice A is incorrect because the text suggests that Mother prefers to spend

her time with her children and doesn’t sit at home hoping that ladies will visit her.

Choice B is incorrect because the text says only that Mother makes up poetry

for the children’s birthdays, not that she likes birthdays more than other special

occasions. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that Mother

prefers reading to her children over the other activities she does with them, such

as playing with them and writing stories and poems for them.

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

7 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 11

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately states the main purpose

of the text. In the first part of the text, the speaker addresses Paul Laurence

Dunbar’s ability to understand people (he has “read the hearts and souls of men”

and written of their “joy and mirth”). In the second part of the text, the speaker

describes Dunbar’s thorough understanding of the natural world (he has read “the

language of the flowers” and engaged with “the little brook”). Thus, the text mainly

praises Dunbar for being especially perceptive about people and nature.

Choice B is incorrect because the speaker describes Dunbar as having read the

“hearts and souls of men” and the “language of flowers” to convey Dunbar’s ability

to comprehend people and nature, not to suggest that Dunbar has literally read

any of these things or has read a great deal about them. Choice C is incorrect

because the text notes how well Dunbar has made sense of the topics he’s written

about but doesn’t address any specific parts of Dunbar’s writing process beyond

the suggestion that he used a pen. Choice D is incorrect because the text focuses

on Dunbar’s understanding of people and nature as expressed in his writing.

Nothing in the text suggests that the speaker is recalling a particular afternoon

actually spent in nature with Dunbar; even if there had been a shared experience,

the text isn’t focused on reminiscing.

QUESTION 12

Choice A is the best answer because it presents the quotation that most directly

illustrates the claim that Whitman’s poem suggests that its readers haven’t fully

understood themselves. This quotation makes that point directly by saying to

readers, “You have not known what you are.” The quotation goes on to reinforce

this point using a metaphor of sleep, saying that readers have “slumber’d” and

that their “eyelids have been the same as closed most of the time.”

Choice B is incorrect because this quotation doesn’t suggest that readers haven’t

fully understood themselves but instead characterizes readers as “immense”

and “interminable.” Although immense and interminable things can be difficult to

understand, this quotation doesn’t make that point. Choice C is incorrect because

this quotation doesn’t suggest that readers haven’t fully understood themselves

but instead conveys the speaker’s regret over not having celebrated readers

sooner. In fact, this quotation says nothing at all about readers themselves—it’s

focused solely on the speaker’s feelings about readers. Choice D is incorrect

because this quotation doesn’t suggest that readers haven’t fully understood

themselves; instead, this quotation makes the point that the speaker has

understood readers and is determined to create “hymns” about them.

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8 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 13

Choice A is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would

support the claim about Chambi’s photographs. The text describes a student

advancing the claim that Chambi’s photographs “have considerable ethnographic

value”—meaning that they are valuable as records of cultures—and that they

“capture diverse elements of Peruvian society” in a respectful way. If it’s true that

Chambi carefully photographed people from a range of different communities in

Peru as well as photographed the customs and sites of different communities,

that would lend support to the claim that the photographs have ethnographic

value as depictions of diverse elements of society in Peru.

Choice B is incorrect because the student’s claim is that Chambi’s photographs

have considerable ethnographic value because they depict diverse elements

of Peruvian society; the student doesn’t claim anything about the technical skill

demonstrated in the photographs. Choice C is incorrect because neither Chambi’s

reputation nor the locations where his photographs may have been published

would be relevant to the student’s claim that his photographs are valuable as an

ethnographic record of Peru’s diverse society. Choice D is incorrect because

the popularity among other photographers of the people and places that

Chambi photographed would be irrelevant to the student’s claim that Chambi’s

photographs are valuable as an ethnographic record of Peru’s diverse society.

QUESTION 14

Choice C is the best answer because it uses data from the table to effectively

exemplify the idea that the film outputs of the four individuals included in the table

should be considered bare minimums—that is, that we should assume that the

individuals actually had higher outputs than those recorded. The table presents the

years during which the individuals were active and the number of known films the

individuals are credited in. The table indicates that Lillian St. Cyr has 66 film credits

as an actor and that Edwin Carewe has 58 film credits as a director; it follows that if

some films and records for the era were lost, it’s possible that Lillian St. Cyr acted

in far more than 66 films and that Edwin Carewe directed more than 58 films.

Choice A is incorrect because it doesn’t effectively exemplify the idea that the

film outputs of the four individuals included in the table should be considered

bare minimums. Rather than addressing the idea that the individuals likely had

higher outputs than those presented in the table, this choice simply compares

data from the table to make the point that Dark Cloud has fewer credited acting

roles than Lillian St. Cyr (35 and 66, respectively). Choice B is incorrect because

it misrepresents data from the table, even though it may exemplify the idea that

the film outputs of the four individuals included in the table should be considered

bare minimums by implying that Edwin Carewe acted in more than 47 films. The

table indicates that Edwin Carewe was active from 1912 to 1934, meaning that his

47 credited acting roles were in films made before or during 1934, not after that

time. Choice D is incorrect because it doesn’t effectively exemplify the idea that

the film outputs of the four individuals included in the table should be considered

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9 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

bare minimums. Instead of addressing the idea that the individuals likely had

higher outputs than those recorded, this choice suggests that James Young

Deer actually acted in and directed fewer films than presented in the table (only

33 known films as a director instead of 35, and only 10 known films as an actor

instead of 33).

QUESTION 15

Choice D is the best answer because it provides the most direct support from the

table for the claim that the plants growing in close proximity to other plants gained

an advantage at an early developmental stage. The table shows the total number

of juvenile plants from five species that were found growing on bare ground and

in patches of vegetation as well as the percentage of the total number of each

species that were growing in patches of vegetation. For each of the five species,

more than 50% of the juvenile plants were growing in patches of vegetation. The

text notes, however, that a random distribution of plants across the landscape

should result in only about 15% of the plants being found in patches of vegetation.

In other words, for each of the five species, the percentage of juvenile plants found

growing in patches of vegetation was substantially higher than could be explained

by chance alone. This finding supports the claim in the text: if plants growing in

patches are overrepresented among plants that have survived to the juvenile

stage, as the data show they are, then it suggests that it’s advantageous for plants

at an early stage of development to grow in patches of vegetation.

Choice A is incorrect because the statement that less than 75% of juvenile plants

were found growing in patches of vegetation, while true, doesn’t clearly support

the claim that the plants growing in close proximity to other plants gained an

advantage at an early developmental stage. Saying that less than 75% of plants

were found in patches doesn’t indicate how the percentage growing in patches

compares with the percentage that would be expected to grow in patches on the

basis of chance alone, which is the information necessary to evaluate whether

the claim in the text has support in the table. Put another way, if the percentage

of plants found growing in patches was 15% or less, it would be true that less

than 75% were found in patches, but the data would in fact weaken the claim in

the text, not strengthen it, since the data would show that growing in patches

wasn’t advantageous. Choice B is incorrect because only 12 plants of this species

were found growing in patches, which was the lowest number of any species, not

the greatest number. Additionally, even if it were true that this species had the

greatest number of plants growing in patches, the finding would be irrelevant to

the claim that plants of all five species gained an advantage by growing in close

proximity to other plants. Choice C is incorrect because 59.1% of the plants of

these species were found growing in patches, which is a far greater percentage,

not a lower percentage, than what would be expected if plants were randomly

distributed (around 15%). Additionally, if it were true that the percentage of plants

growing in patches was lower for these species than what would be expected

from chance alone, that finding would weaken, not strengthen, the claim that

growing in patches is advantageous.

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10 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 16

Choice C is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would

support the researchers’ hypothesis about the plants’ dependence on dissolving

rock. The text indicates that the roots of the two plant species grow directly into

quartzite rock, where hairs on the roots secrete acids that dissolve the rock.

The researchers hypothesize that the plants depend on this process because

dissolving rock opens spaces for the roots to grow and releases phosphates that

provide the plants with phosphorous, a vital nutrient. If the plants carry out this

process of dissolving rock even when the rock already has spaces into which

the roots could grow, that would support the researchers’ hypothesis because

it suggests that the plants are getting some advantage—such as access to

phosphorous—from the action of dissolving rock. If the plants don’t benefit from

dissolving rock, they would be expected to grow in the cracks that already exist,

as doing so would mean that the plants don’t have to spend energy creating and

secreting acids; if, however, the plants create new entry points by dissolving rock

even when cracks already exist, that would support the hypothesis that they

depend on dissolving rock for some benefit.

Choice A is incorrect because the existence of soil-inhabiting members of

the Velloziaceae family with similar root structures to those of the two species

discussed in the text wouldn’t support the researchers’ hypothesis that the species

discussed in the text depend on dissolving rock. If other such members exist, that

might suggest that the root structures can serve more functions than secreting

acids to dissolve rock (since dissolving rock may not be necessary for plants living

in soil), but that wouldn’t suggest anything about whether the species discussed

in the text benefit from dissolving rock. Choice B is incorrect because differences

in the proportions of citric and malic acid secreted by the two species would be

irrelevant to the hypothesis that the plants depend on dissolving rock. There’s no

information in the text to suggest that the proportion of each acid has any bearing

on the process of dissolving rock or on any benefits the plants might receive from

that process. Choice D is incorrect because if the two species thrive on rocks

without phosphates, that would weaken the researchers’ hypothesis that the plants

depend on dissolving rock partly because dissolving rock gives them access to

phosphates. If the plants can survive on rocks without getting a vital nutrient by

dissolving those rocks, then either the nutrient isn’t actually vital for those plants

or they can get the nutrient in some way other than by dissolving rocks.

QUESTION 17

Choice B is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most

logically follows from the text’s discussion of the relationship between

atmospheric carbon dioxide and sauropod body size. The text establishes that

sauropods evolved to reach enormous sizes, and it notes that some scientists

have asserted that the cause of this phenomenon was increased plant production

that resulted from increased atmospheric carbon dioxide. The text goes on to

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

11 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

state, however, that atmospheric carbon dioxide levels didn’t increase around

the time of important periods in sauropods’ evolution of larger body sizes. If

significant periods of sauropod evolution toward larger sizes occurred without

increased atmospheric carbon dioxide levels, that suggests that the evolution of

larger sizes didn’t depend on increased carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t describe any fluctuations in

atmospheric carbon dioxide, so there’s no evidence in the text to support the

conclusion that such fluctuations had different effects on different sauropod

lineages. All that the text says about atmospheric carbon dioxide levels is that

there weren’t increases at particular points that correspond with key moments in

sauropod evolution. Choice C is incorrect because the text indicates that there

weren’t significant increases in atmospheric carbon dioxide around the time of

important periods in sauropods’ evolution toward larger body sizes, not that

atmospheric carbon dioxide was higher when the largest sauropods lived than

when sauropods first appeared. Choice D is incorrect because the text indicates

that atmospheric carbon dioxide levels didn’t increase at important periods in

sauropod evolution, not that higher levels would have affected that evolution.

The text provides no information about how higher levels of atmospheric carbon

dioxide might have affected sauropods.

QUESTION 18

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s

discussion of Anita Allen’s argument about judges citing philosophers in their

judicial opinions. The text indicates that judges sometimes cite philosophers

when writing their judicial opinions and that, according to Allen, judges tend to cite

philosophers whose views are in agreement with those of the judges themselves.

Allen claims, however, that the best judicial opinions consider potential objections

and rebut them, which suggests that judges may be able to strengthen their

opinions by including discussions of philosophers with views contrary to their own.

Choice A is incorrect because Allen’s claim is that judges could improve their

judicial opinions by citing philosophers who disagree with the views expressed

in the opinions, which would necessarily require judges to consult philosophical

works. Choice C is incorrect because there’s no discussion in the text about making

judicial opinions more easily understood by any particular group of readers. The

focus of the text is on Allen’s claim that judicial opinions could be strengthened

by the inclusion of discussions of philosophers whose views disagree with those

of the judges authoring the opinions. Choice D is incorrect because the text

presents Allen’s argument that discussing philosophers whose views judges

disagree with could strengthen judicial opinions, not that doing so could bring

those opinions into line with views that are popular among philosophers.

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12 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 19

Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is pronoun-antecedent

agreement. The plural pronoun “they” agrees in number with the plural antecedent

“customers.”

Choice B is incorrect because the singular pronoun “one” doesn’t agree in number

with the plural antecedent “customers.” Choice C is incorrect because the

second person pronoun “you” isn’t conventional as a substitute for “customers.”

It suggests that the audience (“you”) is the customer. Choice D is incorrect

because the singular pronoun “it” doesn’t agree in number with the plural

antecedent “customers.”

QUESTION 20

Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use

between a main clause and a participial phrase. This choice correctly uses a

comma to mark the boundary between the main clause (“Epicurus…‘soul’”) and

the participial phrase (“positing…absence”) that provides additional information

about how Epicurus defined pleasure.

Choice B is incorrect because a colon can’t be used in this way to join a main

clause and a participial phrase. Choice C is incorrect because a semicolon can’t

be used in this way to join a main clause and a participial phrase. Choice D is

incorrect because it results in a rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment

beginning with “positing.”

QUESTION 21

Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of

possessive determiners. The plural possessive determiner “their” agrees in

number with the plural conjoined noun phrase “Watson and Crick” and thus

indicates that the findings were those of Watson and Crick.

Choice A is incorrect because “they’re” is the contraction for “they are,” not a

possessive determiner. Choice B is incorrect because “it’s” is the contraction

for “it is” or “it has,” not a possessive determiner. Choice D is incorrect because

the singular possessive determiner “its” doesn’t agree in number with the plural

conjoined noun phrase “Watson and Crick.”

QUESTION 22

Choice C is the best answer. The conventions being tested are punctuation use

between titles and proper nouns and between verbs and integrated quotations.

No punctuation is needed to set off the proper noun “Stina Chyn” from the title

that describes Chyn, “critic.” Because “Stina Chyn” is essential information

identifying the “critic,” no punctuation is necessary. Further, no punctuation

is needed between the verb “claims” and the following quotation because the

quotation is integrated into the structure of the sentence.

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13 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed before or after the

proper noun “Stina Chyn.” Setting the critic’s name off with commas suggests

that it could be removed without affecting the coherence of the sentence,

which isn’t the case. Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed

before or after the proper noun “Stina Chyn.” Setting the critic’s name off with

commas suggests that it could be removed without affecting the coherence

of the sentence, which isn’t the case. Additionally, no punctuation is needed

between “claims” and the integrated quotation. Choice D is incorrect because

no punctuation is needed between the verb “claims” and its subject, “critic Stina

Chyn.” Additionally, no punctuation is needed between the verb “claims” and the

integrated quotation.

QUESTION 23

Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of finite and

nonfinite verb forms within a sentence. A main clause requires a finite verb to

perform the action of the subject (in this case, “some historians”), and this choice

supplies the finite present tense verb “claim” to indicate what some historians do.

Choice A is incorrect because the nonfinite participle “claiming” doesn’t supply

the main clause with a finite verb. Choice C is incorrect because the nonfinite

participle “having claimed” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb.

Choice D is incorrect because the nonfinite to-infinitive “to claim” doesn’t supply

the main clause with a finite verb.

QUESTION 24

Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is colon use within

a sentence. A colon used in this way introduces information that illustrates or

explains information that has come before it. In this case, the colon introduces

the following explanation of why some roundworms in the Southern Hemisphere

move in the opposite direction of Earth’s magnetic field.

Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be

used in this way to join two long independent clauses (“Researchers…food”

and “in…sources”) such as these. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a

run-on sentence. The two clauses (“Researchers…food” and “in…sources”) are

fused without punctuation. Furthermore, the conjunction “while” fails to indicate

that what follows is an explanation of why some roundworms in the Southern

Hemisphere move in the opposite direction of Earth’s magnetic field. Choice D is

incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two clauses (“Researchers…

food” and “in…sources”) are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.

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14 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 25

Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is pronoun-antecedent

agreement. The plural reflexive pronoun “themselves” agrees in number with the

plural antecedent “turtle barnacles,” correctly indicating what is attached to a sea

turtle shell.

Choice A is incorrect because the singular pronoun “it” doesn’t agree in number

with the plural antecedent “turtle barnacles.” Choice C is incorrect because it

results in an unclear and confusing sentence. In this context, it’s unclear what

the plural pronoun “them” refers to. Choice D is incorrect because the singular

reflexive pronoun “itself” doesn’t agree in number with the plural antecedent

“turtle barnacles.”

QUESTION 26

Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject–verb

agreement. The singular verb “allows” agrees in number with the singular subject

“landing.”

Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb “are allowing” doesn’t agree in

number with the singular subject “landing.” Choice C is incorrect because the

plural verb “have allowed” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject

“landing.” Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb “allow” doesn’t agree in

number with the singular subject “landing.”

QUESTION 27

Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of

punctuation to mark boundaries between supplements and clauses. The comma

after “equations” is used to separate the independent clause (“Hopper’s…

equation”) from the supplementary adverb phrase “though.” The colon after

“though” is used to mark the boundary between the clause ending with “though”

and the following clause (“as…age”). A colon used in this way introduces

information that illustrates or explains information that has come before it. In

this case, the colon after “though” introduces the following explanation of how

Hopper’s subsequent career would involve more than just solving equations: she

would become a pioneering computer programmer.

Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used

in this way to join two independent clauses (“Hopper’s…though” and “as…age”)

such as these. Choice C is incorrect because it results in an illogical sequence of

sentences. Placing the period after “equations” and beginning the next sentence

with “Though” illogically suggests that the following information (that Hopper

would help usher in the digital age) is contrary to the information in the previous

sentence (Hopper’s subsequent career would involve more than just solving

equations). Instead, the information that follows supports the information from

the previous sentence by explaining how her work and influence extended beyond

solely solving equations. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a run-on

sentence. The two independent clauses (“Hopper’s…though” and “as…age”) are

fused without punctuation.

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READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

15 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 28

Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-modifier

placement. This choice ensures that the introductory phrase “upon recovering

two years later” appears immediately before the noun it modifies (“Henry”), clearly

establishing that Henry recovered two years later.

Choice B is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of

the noun phrase “the reign of Henry” immediately after the introductory phrase

illogically suggests that the reign of Henry recovered two years later. ChoiceC

is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun

phrase “Henry’s reign” immediately after the introductory phrase illogically

suggests that Henry’s reign recovered two years later. Choice D is incorrect

because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the function word “it”

immediately after the introductory phrase illogically suggests that “it” recovered

two years later.

QUESTION 29

Choice D is the best answer. “For example” logically signals that the information

in this sentence—that The Emperor’s Babe is a novel conveyed in lines of

poetry—exemplifies the claim in the previous sentence about hybrid works that

incorporate elements of both novels and poems.

Choice A is incorrect because “by contrast” illogically signals that the information in

this sentence contrasts with the claim about hybrid works in the previous sentence.

Instead, the information demonstrates that Evaristo’s novel is an example of a

hybrid work. Choice B is incorrect because “consequently” illogically signals that

the information in this sentence is a consequence, or result, of the claim about

hybrid works in the previous sentence. Instead, the information demonstrates

that Evaristo’s novel is an example of a hybrid work. Choice C is incorrect because

“secondly” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a second,

separate claim from the previous sentence’s claim about hybrid works. Instead, the

information demonstrates that Evaristo’s novel is an example of a hybrid work.

QUESTION 30

Choice C is the best answer. “By contrast” logically signals that the information

in this sentence—that dogs can see, hear, and smell by the end of two weeks—

contrasts with the preceding information (that wolves can smell but not see or

hear at the same age).

Choice A is incorrect because “in other words” illogically signals that the information

about domesticated dogs in this sentence paraphrases the information about

wolves in the previous sentence. Instead, the information about dogs contrasts with

what came before. Choice B is incorrect because “for instance” illogically signals

that the information about domesticated dogs in this sentence exemplifies the

information about wolves in the previous sentence. Instead, the information about

dogs contrasts with what came before. Choice D is incorrect because “accordingly”

illogically signals that the information about domesticated dogs in this sentence is

in accordance with, or results from, the information about wolves in the previous

sentence. Instead, the information about dogs contrasts with what came before.

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16 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 31

Choice D is the best answer. “Increasingly” logically signals that the claim in

this sentence—that mathematicians are collaborating with their peers—marks

a change relative to what was traditionally done. As the previous sentence

explains, while mathematicians may have traditionally worked alone, evidence

points to a shift in the opposite direction. The claim describes the shift: a rise in

collaboration.

Choice A is incorrect because “similarly” illogically signals that the claim in

this sentence is similar to, but separate from, the previous claim about the

shift away from mathematicians working alone. Instead, the claim about the

rise in collaboration elaborates on the previous claim, describing the shift.

Choice B is incorrect because “for this reason” illogically signals that the claim

in this sentence is caused by the previous claim about the shift away from

mathematicians working alone. Instead, the claim about the rise in collaboration

elaborates on the previous claim, describing the shift. Choice C is incorrect

because “furthermore” illogically signals that the claim in this sentence is in

addition to the previous claim about the shift away from mathematicians working

alone. Instead, the claim about the rise in collaboration elaborates on the previous

claim, describing the shift.

QUESTION 32

Choice D is the best answer. The sentence presents both the study and its

findings, noting the study’s date and the researcher’s name as well as describing

what the researcher determined about the jawbones and how she determined it.

Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence describes the study and the

researcher’s initial assessment, it doesn’t present the study’s findings. Choice B is

incorrect. While the sentence describes the study and its focus, it doesn’t present

the study’s findings or the name of the researcher who conducted it. Choice C is

incorrect. While the sentence mentions the study’s methodology and provides

information about pterosaurs, it doesn’t present the study’s findings.

QUESTION 33

Choice C is the best answer. The sentence compares the two women’s

contributions to the march: Hedgeman worked behind the scenes to make sure a

woman speaker was included, whereas Bates actually spoke at the event.

Choice A is incorrect. While it acknowledges that the two women both

contributed to the march, it doesn’t indicate what Hedgeman did, so no

comparison is made. Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence provides

information about the two women, it doesn’t mention anything about Bates’s

contribution to the march. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence indicates

that the two women both fought for civil rights, it doesn’t compare their individual

contributions to the march.

17 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

Reading and Writing

Module 2

(33 questions)

QUESTION 1

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s

discussion of Jacob Lawrence’s artistic process. In this context, “observant”

means watchful and perceptive. The text emphasizes that the “close attention”

Lawrence paid to “all the details” of his neighborhood allowed him to reflect subtle

elements of “the beauty and vitality of the Black experience” in his artwork. This

context indicates that being observant of his surroundings was an important part

of Lawrence’s work as an artist.

Choice A is incorrect because the text gives no indication that Lawrence was

“skeptical,” or had an attitude of doubt in general or about particular things, let

alone that skepticism was important to him as an artist. Rather than indicating

that he was skeptical, the text focuses on how Lawrence paid careful attention

to everything around him and reflected his observations in his artwork. ChoiceC

is incorrect because the text gives no indication that Lawrence was “critical,”

which in this context would mean inclined to criticize harshly or unfairly. Rather

than indicating that Lawrence found fault in things, the text suggests that he

paid careful attention to everything around him and that his artwork reflects this

careful attention. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that

Lawrence was “confident,” or self-assured. Rather than addressing how Lawrence

felt about himself and how that feeling affected his artistic process, the text

emphasizes the careful attention Lawrence paid to everything around him—

attention that allowed him to capture subtle elements of a particular place and

time in his artwork.

18 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

QUESTION 2

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s

discussion of the research that Lopes-Ferreira and her colleagues are conducting

on the stingray species Potamotrygon rex. As used in this context, “a substantial”

effect means an effect that is sizable or noteworthy. The text indicates that the

researchers are seeking to determine whether there are “considerable variations”

in the potency of stingray venom that are associated with variation in the

stingrays’ age and sex. This context suggests that the researchers want to find

out whether stingray age and sex have a substantial effect on venom toxicity.

Choice A is incorrect because there’s nothing in the text that suggests that the

researchers have been studying whether the stingrays’ age and sex have “a

disconcerting,” or an unsettling and disturbing, effect on the stingrays’ venom.

The text indicates that the researchers wish to determine if stingray age and

sex cause large variations in the toxicity of stingray venom, not if the effect of

age and sex is disconcerting. Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates

that researchers want to find out whether differences in stingray age and sex

produce differences in stingray venom, not that the researchers want to find out

whether age and sex have “an acceptable,” or a satisfactory, effect on venom.

The text makes no mention of what would make an effect on venom toxicity

acceptable and gives no indication that the researchers are interested in that

question. Choice C is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense in context for the

researchers to be looking for “an imperceptible,” or an unnoticeable, effect of

age and sex on stingray venom. The text says that the researchers are trying to

determine if there are “considerable variations” in venom toxicity linked to age and

sex, not that the researchers are trying to find effects that they can’t perceive.

QUESTION 3

Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s

discussion of diaphragm contractions and hiccups. In this context, “involuntarily”

means done without any control, or by reflex. The text explains that when a

person’s diaphragm repeatedly contracts and results in hiccups (which may be

beneficial for infants), those muscle contractions are “uncontrollable.” This context

indicates that the diaphragm contractions occur without the person’s control.

Choice B is incorrect because it wouldn’t support the logical relationship

established in the text’s discussion of diaphragm contractions and hiccups.

The text indicates that although specific causes for hiccups haven’t been

identified, it may be the case that the muscle contractions that occur have an

important purpose in infants. It wouldn’t make sense to say that even though

the contractions occur “beneficially,” or with a good or helpful effect, they might

play a positive role in infants’ breathing regulation. Choice C is incorrect because

the text indicates that the diaphragm contractions that result in hiccups are

“uncontrollable.” Because those muscle contractions are described as happening

automatically and without the person’s control, it wouldn’t make sense to

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describe them as occurring “strenuously,” or in a way that requires great effort

or energy. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t describe the quality of

the diaphragm contractions that result in hiccups beyond stating that they are

“uncontrollable.” Nothing in the text indicates that those muscle contractions

occur “smoothly,” or evenly and continuously.

QUESTION 4

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s

discussion about the relationship between fine art and fashion. As used in this

context, “intersect” means to connect or overlap. The text indicates that Jamie

Okuma challenges the position held by critics because her work can be seen

at an art museum and can be bought by the public from her online boutique.

The text also presents the critics’ view as being influenced by a perception that

fine artists create works that are “timeless” and meant for exhibition, whereas

fashion designers periodically produce new styles that are meant for purchase.

This context suggests that the critics believe that fine art and fashion tend not to

overlap—in other words, that they rarely intersect.

Choice A is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense in context to say that

critics contend that fine art and fashion rarely “prevail,” or prove to be triumphant

or widespread. The text indicates that Okuma is an example of an artist who

demonstrates that it’s possible to make fine art that is also available to the public

as fashion. Choice B is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense in context to

say that fine art and fashion rarely “succumb,” or surrender. The text establishes

that unlike what critics believe, Okuma creates works that are in art museums

and available for the public to purchase, suggesting that critics believe fine art

and fashion rarely overlap, not that they rarely succumb. Choice C is incorrect

because saying that critics believe that fine art and fashion rarely “diverge,” or

disagree or move in different directions, wouldn’t make sense in context. The text

presents Okuma’s work as both fine art and fashion, thereby undermining what

the critics assert. This suggests that the critics believe that fine art and fashion

rarely intersect rather than that the two rarely diverge.

QUESTION 5

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s

discussion of gender roles in Shakespeare’s comedies. As used in this context,

“prescribed” would mean laid down as rules. The text indicates that the characters

in the comedies often defy gender roles that are “socially dictated” (even if most

characters do return to those roles eventually) and that scholars have been

very interested in these acts of defiance. This context indicates that what the

characters are rebelling against are standards of behavior prescribed by the

society of the time.

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Choice A is incorrect because saying that expectations about gender were

“interjected,” or suddenly inserted between other things, wouldn’t make sense

in context. There’s no suggestion in the text that the issue of gender roles was

inserted between other things or was an interruption in a larger discussion.

Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that Shakespeare depicts

characters rebelling against expectations about gender that have been

“socially dictated,” not expectations that society has “committed,” or carried out,

entrusted, or promised. Choice C is incorrect because the text indicates that

Shakespeare depicts characters rebelling against expectations about gender

that have been “socially dictated,” not expectations that have been “illustrated,”

or clarified with examples. Although it’s possible for expectations about gender

roles to be illustrated, there’s nothing in the text to indicate that characters in

Shakespeare’s comedies rebel against illustrations of gender expectations.

QUESTION 6

Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s

discussion of Ward and colleagues’ findings. As used in this context, “innocuous”

means mild or unharmful. The text describes the vibration and warming that Ward

and colleagues used to alleviate itching as “harmless applications” and goes on to

contrast these applications with another stimulus that actually offers more relief

even though it seems to be stronger and “less benign.” This context conveys the

idea that vibration and warming were innocuous stimuli.

Choice A is incorrect because the text focuses on a distinction between harmless

stimuli and those that seem to be less benign. Nothing in the text suggests

that any of the treatments are “deceptive,” or misleading; indeed, even the

less effective ones are described as offering some relief. Choice C is incorrect

because the text focuses on the amount of relief from itching offered by harmless

stimuli and those that seem to be less benign. The text doesn’t suggest that any

of these stimuli are “novel,” or original and new; heat, vibration, and electricity

aren’t new inventions. Choice D is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to

describe an application of vibration or warming as “impractical,” or not suitable

for use. The text indicates that these harmless applications are useful in that they

offer at least some temporary relief.

QUESTION 7

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s

discussion of the location of the province of Xoconochco within the Aztec Empire.

As used in this context, “peripheral” means situated toward the outer bounds

rather than the center. The text indicates that Xoconochco was located on a

coast, hundreds of kilometers away from the capital of the Aztec Empire. The

text also states that trade between the province and the capital required “a long

overland journey.” This context suggests that Xoconochco was situated toward

an edge of the empire’s territory rather than near its center.

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Choice A is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense in context to refer to

Xoconochco’s location within the Aztec Empire as “unobtrusive,” or not blatant

or undesirably prominent; it’s not clear how a province’s physical location would

or wouldn’t be blatant. Instead of focusing on how noticeable Xoconochco’s

location was, the text emphasizes the province’s distance from the capital of the

empire, pointing out that because of this distance trade between the two required

“a long overland journey.” Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that

the province of Xoconochco was located on a coast far from the capital of the

Aztec Empire, not that it was “concealed,” or kept out of sight or hidden from

view. Nothing in the text suggests that Xoconochco was actually hidden such

that people couldn’t see it, and being hidden wouldn’t necessarily result in trade

between the province and the capital requiring “a long overland journey.” ChoiceC

is incorrect because to say that Xoconochco’s location within the Aztec Empire

was “approximate” would mean that the location either wasn’t precisely correct or

was close to some other location. Neither of these meanings would make sense

in context because the text indicates that Xoconochco’s location is known and

that it was far from the empire’s capital, so there’s no reason to characterize the

location as either not precisely correct or close to another location.

QUESTION 8

Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main

purpose of the text, which is to show that while Jane calmly goes about her daily

tasks, she is experiencing internal agitation about possibly seeking a new job.

At the start of the text, Jane says, “I went on with my day’s business tranquilly,”

indicating that she is outwardly calm. This outward calmness is then contrasted

with her intense internal restlessness, as Jane says that thoughts of leaving her job

keep running through her mind, that she is “involuntarily framing advertisements”

(meaning that she can’t stop herself from thinking up potential listings for jobs),

and that she often wonders what new “situations” (or jobs) would be like.

Choice B is incorrect because the text gives no indication of Jane’s feelings,

either positive or negative, about the people she works for at Thornfield Hall.

And rather than emphasizing that Jane feels particularly loyal to her employers,

the text focuses on her constant consideration of leaving her job. Choice C is

incorrect because the text gives no indication that Jane finds her current situation

fulfilling, or satisfying. Given that much of the text is focused on Jane’s thoughts

about possibly leaving her job for a new one, it might be the case that she finds

her situation challenging, but there is no evidence in the text that Jane also finds

that situation satisfying—she says nothing positive about her current job at all, in

fact. Choice D is incorrect because the text describes Jane as wondering about

getting a new job, not as determined to definitely do so. Jane keeps thinking

about reasons why she “should” quit her current job (indicating that she hasn’t yet

decided to) and imagining possible new situations she could find, but she says

at the end of the text that these thoughts “might germinate and bear fruit if they

could,” meaning that the thoughts haven’t yet led to a decision—that Jane isn’t

yet determined to get a new job somewhere else.

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QUESTION 9

Choice B is the best answer because it reflects how the author of Text 2

would most likely respond to Text 1 based on the information provided. Text1

discusses the discovery of a regeneration-linked gene, EGR, in both three-

banded panther worms (which are capable of full regeneration) and humans (who

have relatively limited regeneration abilities). Text 1 characterizes this discovery

as “especially promising” and a sign of “exciting progress” in understanding

human regeneration. The author of Text 2, on the other hand, focuses on the

fact that the team that reported the EGR finding pointed out that while EGR’s

function in humans isn’t yet known, it’s likely very different from its function in

panther worms. Therefore, the author of Text 2 would most likely say that Text 1’s

enthusiasm about the EGR discovery is overly optimistic given Srivastava’s team’s

observations about EGR in humans.

Choice A is incorrect because the author of Text 2 explains that Srivastava and

her team explicitly reported that they haven’t yet identified how EGR functions

in humans; therefore, the author of Text 2 wouldn’t say that Text 1’s excitement

is reasonable for the stated reason. Instead, the author of Text 2 would likely

characterize Text 1’s excitement as premature and overly optimistic. ChoiceC is

incorrect because Text 1 does treat Srivastava’s team’s findings with enthusiasm;

it describes the discovery of EGR in both three-banded panther worms and

humans as promising and exciting. It would be illogical for the author of Text2

to say that because most others treat the discovery with enthusiasm, Text1’s

enthusiastic characterization of the discovery is unexpected. Choice D is

incorrect because Text 1 isn’t at all dismissive of Srivastava’s team’s findings;

instead, Text 1 is optimistic about the EGR discovery, characterizing it as

promising and exciting. There’s nothing in Text 2 to suggest that the author of

Text2 would say that Text 1’s praise for the discovery is dismissive, or disdainful.

QUESTION 10

Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of

the text. The speaker describes the experience of being “weary” and “tired” and

going to bed to seek “dear repose” (that is, sleep), but instead of sleeping, the

speaker is kept awake (“keep my drooping eyelids open wide”) by thoughts of a

friend (“my thoughts... [Begin] a zealous pilgrimage to thee”).

Choice A is incorrect because the text makes it clear that the speaker isn’t asleep;

thoughts about the friend are keeping the speaker awake (“keep my drooping

eyelids open wide”). Choice B is incorrect because the speaker isn’t talking about

taking a literal trip when referring to “a zealous pilgrimage.” Rather, the speaker is

referring to the experience of thinking about the friend, of taking “a journey in my

head.” Choice C is incorrect because the text indicates that the speaker and the

friend aren’t in the same place and having a conversation. Rather, the speaker is at

home and thinking of the friend, who is somewhere else (“from far where I abide”).

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QUESTION 11

Choice D is the best answer because it presents a statement about how the Lord

Chancellor responds to the crowd that is supported by the text. The text indicates

that the people in the crowd are roaring and shouting “Bread!” or “Taxes!” and

presents them as not knowing what they really want. The Lord Chancellor’s

response is to ask what their shouting means but also to observe that they’re

shouting with “unanimity,” or total agreement. Clearly, this isn’t the case, which

supports the statement that the Lord Chancellor describes the crowd as being

united even though it’s not.

Choice A is incorrect because it isn’t supported by the text. Although the text

indicates that the Lord Chancellor asks about the meaning of the crowd’s

shouting, it doesn’t suggest that he knows what the crowd really wants. ChoiceB

is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that the Lord Chancellor wants

to speak to the crowd. Furthermore, the text doesn’t indicate that the crowd

wants to hear from the Sub-Warden. Although the crowd roars when asked

“Who roar for the Sub-Warden?” it’s unclear what the roaring means. Choice C is

incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that the Lord Chancellor knows of or

sympathizes with the crowd’s demands. In addition, the text doesn’t indicate that

the crowd’s shouting annoys the Lord Chancellor, just that it causes him to keep

repeating “What can it all mean?”

QUESTION 12

Choice A is the best answer because it presents the quotation that most directly

illustrates the claim that Cather portrays Alexandra as having a deep emotional

connection to her natural surroundings. This quotation states that the country

meant a great deal to Alexandra and then goes on to detail several ways in which

her natural surroundings affect her emotionally: the insects sound like “the

sweetest music,” she feels as though “her heart were hiding” in the grass “with the

quail and the plover,” and near the ridges she feels “the future stirring.”

Choice B is incorrect because the quotation doesn’t suggest that Alexandra had

a deep emotional connection to her natural surroundings but instead describes

how she interacts with the people around her to learn more about crops, poultry,

and experiments with clover hay. Choice C is incorrect because the quotation

doesn’t suggest that Alexandra has a deep emotional connection to her natural

surroundings but instead describes her nighttime departure in a wagon. The

quotation says nothing about Alexandra’s emotional state. Choice D is incorrect

because the quotation doesn’t convey Alexandra’s deep emotional connection

to her natural surroundings; instead, this quotation describes how well she

understands the markets and livestock.

QUESTION 13

Choice B is the best answer because it provides the most direct support from the

table for the claim that two languages can convey similar amounts of information

even if they’re spoken at different rates. The table shows the approximate rates

at which five languages are spoken and the rates at which those five languages

convey information. Vietnamese is spoken at around 5.3 syllables per second,

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whereas Spanish is spoken at around 7.7 syllables per second, but the two

languages convey information at very similar rates: Vietnamese at a rate of around

42.5 bits per second and Spanish at a rate of around 42.0 bits per second. Thus,

the description of Vietnamese conveying information at around the same rate

that Spanish does despite being spoken more slowly supports the claim in the

text that languages can convey the same amount of information even if spoken at

different rates.

Choice A is incorrect because it isn’t true that Thai and Hungarian have the lowest

rates of speech of the five languages shown. According to the table, Hungarian

is spoken at around 5.9 syllables per second, which is faster than Vietnamese

(5.3 syllables per second). Additionally, even if this statement were true, the

assertion that two languages are spoken the slowest and convey information the

slowest wouldn’t support the claim that languages can convey the same amount

of information even if they’re spoken at different rates. Choice C is incorrect

because it isn’t true that the fastest-spoken language (Spanish, at 7.7 syllables

per second) also conveys information the fastest: Spanish conveys information at

42.0 bits per second, which is slower than the 42.5 bits-per-second rate at which

Vietnamese conveys information. Additionally, even if this statement were true,

the assertion that the language spoken the fastest also conveys information the

fastest has no bearing on the claim that languages can convey the same amount

of information even if they’re spoken at different rates. Choice D is incorrect

because it isn’t true that Serbian conveys information faster than Spanish does.

According to the table, Serbian conveys information at a rate of around 39.1 bits

per second, which is slower than the 42.0 bits-per-second rate at which Spanish

conveys information.

QUESTION 14

Choice A is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would

most strongly support the researchers’ claim that they found evidence that

experiencing awe can make people feel more connected to others and thus

more likely to behave altruistically (with beneficial and unselfish concern for

others). According to the text, the researchers tested for this effect by first having

participants look at either something known to be awe-inspiring (very tall trees)

or something ordinary (a plain building) and then purposely spilling pens near the

participants. The finding that participants who had looked at the trees helped pick

up significantly more pens than did participants who had looked at the building

would support the researchers’ claim by demonstrating that the people who had

experienced awe behaved more altruistically when the experimenter needed help

than the other participants did.

Choice B is incorrect because a finding about helpful participants using positive

words to describe the trees and the building after the experiment was over

wouldn’t have any bearing on the researchers’ claim that experiencing awe

increases altruistic behavior. The text doesn’t address the use of positive words to

describe things or suggest any connection between using such words and having

experienced awe, so that behavior wouldn’t serve as evidence that experiencing

awe played a role in promoting helpful behavior. Choice C is incorrect because a

finding that participants who didn’t help the experimenter were significantly more

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likely than others to report having experienced awe whether they had looked at

the building or the trees would weaken the researchers’ claim that experiencing

awe increases altruistic behavior by suggesting that the opposite might be true—

that experiencing awe is in fact linked to choosing not to act in a way that benefits

someone else. Choice D is incorrect because a finding about participants noticing

that the experimenter had dropped the pens wouldn’t have any bearing on the

researchers’ claim about people behaving altruistically. Being aware of a challenge

or problem isn’t necessarily beneficial on its own and isn’t the same as offering

help, so the finding wouldn’t support the idea that experiencing awe increases

altruistic behavior.

QUESTION 15

Choice A is the best answer because it presents data from the table that most

effectively complete the statement about the rates at which employment shifted

in France and the United States. The text states that over the last two hundred

years employment in the agricultural sector has declined while employment in the

service sector has risen in both France and the US, and the data from the table

reflect these trends. The text asserts, however, that the transition from agriculture

to services “happened at very different rates in the two countries.” This assertion

is best supported by a comparison of data from 1900 and 1950: the table shows

that in those years, employment in agriculture went from 43% to 32% in France

(a decline of 11 percentage points) and from 41% to 14% in the US (a decline of

27 percentage points), and that employment in services went from 28% to 35%

in France (an increase of 7 percentage points) and from 31% to 53% in the US (an

increase of 22 percentage points). In other words, the rate of change was greater

in the US than in France for both sectors.

Choice B is incorrect because comparing the data for 1800 and 2012 would

suggest a similar rate of change in the two countries, not very different rates:

employment in agriculture went from 64% in 1800 to 3% in 2012 in France,

which is close to the change from 68% in 1800 to 2% in 2012 in the US, while

employment in services went from 14% in 1800 to 76% in 2012 in France, which

is close to the change from 13% in 1800 to 80% in 2012 in the US. Choice C is

incorrect because comparing the data for 1900 and 2012 would suggest a similar

rate of change in the two countries rather than very different rates: employment in

agriculture went from 43% in 1900 to 3% in 2012 in France, which is close to the

change from 41% in 1900 to 2% in 2012 in the US, while employment in services

went from 28% in 1900 to 76% in 2012 in France, which is close to the change

from 31% in 1900 to 80% in 2012 in the US. Choice D is incorrect because

comparing the data for 1800 and 1900 would suggest a similar rate of change in

the two countries, not very different rates: employment in agriculture went from

64% in 1800 to 43% in 1900 in France, which is fairly close to the change from

68% in 1800 to 41% in 1900 in the US, while employment in services went from

14% in 1800 to 28% in 1900 in France, which is close to the change from 13% in

1800 to 31% in 1900 in the US.

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QUESTION 16

Choice C is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would

support the researchers’ claim that archaeologists are unlikely to be replaced by

certain computer models. The text explains that although archaeologists hold

that categorizing pottery fragments relies on both objective criteria and instinct

developed through direct experience, researchers have found that a computer

model can categorize the fragments with the same degree of accuracy as the

humans can—a finding that has caused some archaeologists to worry that their

own work won’t be needed any longer. If survey results indicate that categorizing

pottery fragments limits the amount of time archaeologists can dedicate to other

important tasks that only human experts can do, that would mean that computer

models aren’t able to do all of the important things archaeologists do, thus

supporting the researchers’ claim that computer models are unlikely to replace

human archaeologists.

Choice A is incorrect because if it were true that the computer model could

categorize the pottery fragments much more quickly than the archaeologists

could, that would weaken the researchers’ claim that archaeologists are unlikely

to be replaced by certain computer models, since it would demonstrate that the

models could conduct the archaeologists’ work not only with equal accuracy

but also at a faster pace. Choice B is incorrect because the inability of both the

computer model and the archaeologists to accurately categorize all of the pottery

fragments presented wouldn’t support the researchers’ claim that archaeologists

are unlikely to be replaced by certain computer models. The text indicates that

some archaeologists are worried because the computer model’s accuracy

is equal to their own, and that could be the case whether both were perfectly

accurate or were unable to achieve complete accuracy. Choice D is incorrect

because survey results showing that few archaeologists received special training

in properly categorizing pottery fragments wouldn’t support the researchers’

claim that archaeologists are unlikely to be replaced by certain computer

models. The amount of special training in categorizing pottery fragments that

archaeologists have received has no direct bearing on whether computer

models’ success at categorizing fragments will lead to the models replacing the

archaeologists.

QUESTION 17

Choice A is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most

logically follows from the text’s discussion of military veterans working in civilian

government jobs in the United States. The text indicates that the proportion of

military veterans working in civilian government jobs is considerably higher than

the proportion of military veterans in the population as a whole. The text also

notes that the unusually high representation of military veterans in these jobs

may be a result of the organizational structures shared by civilian government

entities and the military. Hence, it’s reasonable to infer that it’s the familiarity of

the structures of civilian government that makes jobs there particularly attractive

to military veterans.

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Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t address what a typical relationship

between military service and later career preferences would be, and there’s no

indication that it’s atypical for veterans to work in civilian government jobs after

they’ve left the military. On the contrary, the text suggests that many military

veterans are drawn to such jobs. Choice C is incorrect because the text is

focused on the high representation of military veterans in civilian government

jobs and doesn’t address nonveterans or their possible interest in military

service. ChoiceD is incorrect because the text conveys that military veterans

may be particularly interested in civilian government jobs due to the familiarity

of organizational structures that are already in place, but there’s no reason to

think that this interest would mean that more civilian government jobs will start to

require military experience.

QUESTION 18

Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s

discussion of Shultz’s finding about male tanagers. The text explains that because

carotenoids both contribute to deeply saturated feathers and offer health benefits,

having deeply saturated feathers is usually “an honest signal” (a true indication)

that a bird is generally fit. However, Shultz and others have found that certain

male tanagers can appear to have deeply saturated feathers even if they haven’t

consumed a diet rich in carotenoids, thanks to microstructures in their feathers

that manipulate light. If those birds aren’t necessarily eating carotenoid-rich diets,

they may actually be less fit than other birds that appear to have similarly saturated

feathers; this suggests that a male tanager’s appearance may function as a

dishonest signal, or a false indication, of the bird’s overall fitness.

Choice A is incorrect because Shultz’s finding suggests that some tanagers

can signal fitness without consuming the carotenoids that contribute to fitness,

thereby making those signals dishonest, not that tanagers can give honest

signals of their fitness without consuming carotenoids. Choice B is incorrect

because Shultz’s finding suggests that the microstructures in certain tanagers’

feathers can give a dishonest signal of fitness, not that the microstructures are

less effective than actual pigmentation for signaling fitness. Whether the signal

of fitness is honest or dishonest has no bearing on how effective the signal is:

a signal is effective if potential mates behave as though it’s true, regardless of

whether it’s actually true. Since there’s no information in the text about how

potential mates respond to the dishonest signals of some tanagers, there’s no

support for the idea that the dishonest signals are less effective than the honest

signals. Choice C is incorrect because Shultz’s finding suggests that certain male

tanagers may appear to be fitter than they actually are, not that scientists haven’t

determined why tanagers prefer mates with colorful appearances.

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QUESTION 19

Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb

agreement. The singular verb “has been” agrees in number with the singular

subject “writing.”

Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb “were” doesn’t agree in number with

the singular subject “writing.” Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb “have

been” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “writing.” Choice D is

incorrect because the plural verb “are” doesn’t agree in number with the singular

subject “writing.”

QUESTION 20

Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the coordination

of main clauses within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a comma and the

coordinating conjunction “but” to join the first main clause (“the Alvarez…out”) and

the second main clause (“it left … extinctions”).

Choice A is incorrect because when coordinating two longer main clauses such

as these, it’s conventional to use a comma before the coordinating conjunction.

ChoiceC is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main

clauses are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice D is incorrect

because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma

can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses.

QUESTION 21

Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of finite and

nonfinite verb forms within a sentence. The nonfinite present participle “forcing”

is correctly used to form a participial phrase that supplements the main clause

“those...cover,” describing the effects on monkeys of the lack of food sources.

Choice A is incorrect because the finite present tense verb “forces” can’t be used

in this way to supplement the main clause (“those...cover”). Choice B is incorrect.

While the nonfinite to-infinitive “to force” could be used to form a subordinate

clause that supplements the main clause (“those...cover”), to-infinitives

conventionally express purpose, and nothing in the sentence suggests that the

food sources become unavailable for the purpose of forcing monkeys to hunt

marine animals. Choice D is incorrect because the finite past tense verb “forced”

can’t be used in this way to supplement the main clause (“those...cover”).

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QUESTION 22

Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is end-of-sentence

punctuation. This choice correctly uses a question mark to punctuate the

interrogative clause “could the blueberries thrive,” which asks a direct question at

the end of the sentence.

Choice A is incorrect because a period can’t be used in this way to punctuate

an interrogative clause, such as “could the blueberries thrive,” at the end of a

sentence. Choice B is incorrect because the context requires an interrogative

clause. The declarative clause “the blueberries could thrive” incorrectly indicates

that it was known that the blueberries could thrive in alkaline soil, whereas Michel

had yet to find this out. Choice C is incorrect because a question mark can’t be

used in this way to punctuate a declarative clause, such as “the blueberries could

thrive,” at the end of a sentence.

QUESTION 23

Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to

express tense. In this choice, the present tense verb “is,” used in conjunction with

the word “today,” correctly indicates that Paik is currently considered the first

video artist.

Choice A is incorrect because the future-indicating verb “will be” doesn’t indicate

that Paik is currently considered the first video artist. Choice B is incorrect

because the past perfect tense verb “had been” doesn’t indicate that Paik is

currently considered the first video artist. Choice C is incorrect because the past

tense verb “was” doesn’t indicate that Paik is currently considered the first video

artist.

QUESTION 24

Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use

between sentences. In this choice, the period is used correctly to mark the

boundary between the first sentence (“The...adjustments”) and the second

sentence (“Prior...days”). Because the adverbial phrase beginning with “prior”

indicates when changing a spreadsheet required redoing the sheet by hand, that

phrase belongs with the second sentence.

Choice A is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. Two sentences are

fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice B is incorrect because

it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the

boundary between sentences. Choice D is incorrect. Without a comma preceding

it, the conjunction “and” can’t be used in this way to join the sentences.

30 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

QUESTION 25

Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of finite and

nonfinite verb forms within a sentence. The modal “would,” which indicates the

future from a perspective in the past, should be accompanied by a nonfinite base

form verb. In this choice, the nonfinite base form verb “create” is used correctly in

conjunction with the nonfinite base form verb “increase” to describe what the lock

would do.

Choice A is incorrect because the finite present tense verb “creates” can’t be

used in this way with the modal “would” to describe what the lock would do.

Choice C is incorrect because the present participle “creating” can’t be used in

this way with the modal “would” to describe what the lock would do. Choice D is

incorrect because the finite past tense verb “created” can’t be used in this way

with the modal “would” to describe what the lock would do.

QUESTION 26

Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-modifier

placement. This choice ensures that the modifying phrase “despite being cheap,

versatile, and easy to produce” appears immediately before the noun it modifies,

“commercial plastics,” clearly establishing that the commercial plastics—and not

another noun in the sentence—are being described as cheap, versatile, and easy

to produce.

Choice A is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement

of the function word “there” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically

and confusingly suggests that “there” is cheap, versatile, and easy to produce.

ChoiceB is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement

of the noun “two problems” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically

suggests that the “problems” are cheap, versatile, and easy to produce. Choice C

is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun

phrase “commercial plastics’ two associated problems” immediately after the

modifying phrase illogically suggests that the “problems” are cheap, versatile, and

easy to produce.

QUESTION 27

Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of

punctuation between titles and proper nouns. No punctuation is needed to set

off the proper noun “Yuree Lee” from the title that describes Lee, “plant cell

biologist.” Because “Yuree Lee” is essential information identifying the “plant cell

biologist,” no punctuation is necessary.

Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed. Choice B is incorrect

because no punctuation is needed. Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation

is needed before or after the proper noun “Yuree Lee.” Setting the biologist’s

name off with commas suggests that it could be removed without affecting the

coherence of the sentence, which isn’t the case.

31 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

QUESTION 28

Choice D is the best answer. “As a result” logically signals that the claim in this

sentence—that spiders can cling to and climb almost any surface—is because of

the previous information about the bonding properties of spiders’ spatulae.

Choice A is incorrect because “for instance” illogically signals that the claim in this

sentence exemplifies the information in the previous sentences. Instead, the claim

is because of the previous information about the bonding properties of spiders’

spatulae. Choice B is incorrect because “however” illogically signals that the claim

in this sentence contrasts with the information in the previous sentences. Instead,

the claim is because of the previous information about the bonding properties

of spiders’ spatulae. Choice C is incorrect because “similarly” illogically signals

that the claim in this sentence is similar to, but separate from, the information in

the previous sentences. Instead, the claim is because of the previous information

about the bonding properties of spiders’ spatulae.

QUESTION 29

Choice A is the best answer. “Still” logically signals that the information about

Sher-Gil in this sentence— that she longed to leave Paris and return to India—

contrasts with what one would expect after reading about Sher-Gil’s experiences

in Paris in the previous sentences.

Choice B is incorrect because “therefore” illogically signals that the information

about Sher-Gil in this sentence is a result or consequence of the descriptions

in the previous sentences. Instead, this information contrasts with what one

would expect after reading about Sher-Gil’s experiences in Paris. Choice C is

incorrect because “indeed” illogically signals that the information about Sher-

Gil in this sentence offers additional emphasis in support of the descriptions in

the previous sentences. Instead, this information contrasts with what one would

expect after reading about Sher-Gil’s experiences in Paris. Choice D is incorrect

because “furthermore” illogically signals that the information about Sher-Gil in

this sentence offers additional support for or confirmation of the descriptions in

the previous sentences. Instead, this information contrasts with what one would

expect after reading about Sher-Gil’s experiences in Paris.

QUESTION 30

Choice C is the best answer. “Similarly” logically signals that the activity

described in this sentence (Nancy Tuttle Craig distributing Votes for Women Tea

in her Los Angeles grocery stores) is like the activity described in the previous

sentence (the Woman’s Suffrage Party selling Equality Tea at fairs in San

Francisco). Together, the two examples support the preceding claim that “activists

across the state sold tea to promote the cause of suffrage.”

Choice A is incorrect because “for example” illogically signals that the activity

described in this sentence exemplifies the activity described in the previous

sentence. Instead, the two activities are similar, and both support the preceding

claim about selling tea to promote women’s right to vote. Choice B is incorrect

because “to conclude” illogically signals that the activity described in this

32 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

sentence concludes or summarizes the information in the previous sentences.

Instead, the activity is similar to the one described in the previous sentence, and

both support the preceding claim about selling tea to promote women’s right

to vote. Choice D is incorrect because “in other words” illogically signals that

the activity described in this sentence paraphrases the activity described in the

previous sentence. Instead, the two activities are similar, and both support the

preceding claim about selling tea to promote women’s right to vote.

QUESTION 31

Choice B is the best answer. The sentence compares the lengths of the two rail

tunnels, noting that the Channel Tunnel (about 31 miles long) is slightly shorter

than the Seikan Tunnel (roughly 33 miles long).

Choice A is incorrect. The sentence makes a generalization about the length of

some rail tunnels; it doesn’t compare the lengths of the two rail tunnels. ChoiceC

is incorrect. The sentence describes a single rail tunnel; it doesn’t compare the

lengths of the two rail tunnels. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence mentions

the two rail tunnels, it doesn’t compare their lengths.

QUESTION 32

Choice B is the best answer because it provides both an explanation and an

example of “flauna.” The sentence explains that flauna, a combination of the

words “flora” and “fauna,” is a term used by Jon Ching to describe the plant-animal

hybrids in his paintings. The sentence also mentions an example of Ching’s flauna:

a parrot with leaves for feathers.

Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence partially explains what “flauna” is, it

doesn’t provide a full explanation or specific example of Ching’s flauna. Choice C

is incorrect. While the sentence partially explains what “flauna” is and includes a

title of a Ching painting, it doesn’t provide a full explanation or specific example of

Ching’s flauna. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence partially explains what

“flauna” is and includes the titles of two Ching paintings, it doesn’t provide a full

explanation of Ching’s flauna.

QUESTION 33

Choice D is the best answer. By indicating that Taylor’s book was the only

Civil War memoir published by a Black woman, this sentence emphasizes the

uniqueness, or one-of-a-kind nature, of Taylor’s accomplishment.

Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence describes some of Taylor’s

accomplishments, it doesn’t emphasize the uniqueness of them. Choice B is

incorrect. While the sentence describes some of Taylor’s accomplishments,

it doesn’t emphasize that they were unique. Choice C is incorrect. While the

sentence provides information about Taylor’s book, it doesn’t emphasize what

made the book unique.

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 1

33 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

Math

Module 1

(27 questions)

QUESTION 1

Choice B is correct.

10%

of a quantity means

100

times the quantity. Therefore,

10%

470

can be represented as

( )

100

470

, which is equivalent to

( )

0.10 470

. Therefore,

10%

470

Choice A is incorrect. This is

10%

370

, not

10%

470

. Choice C is

incorrect. This is

90%

470

, not

10%

470

. Choice D is incorrect. This is

470 10-

, not

10%

470

QUESTION 2

Choice C is correct. Subtracting

from both sides of the given equation yields

4 12x =

, which is the equation given in choice C. Since this equation is equivalent

to the given equation, it has the same solution as the given equation.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceB is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceD is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 3

Choice D is correct. The cost of the rental fee depends on the number of hours

the surfboard is rented. Multiplying

hours by

dollars per hour yields a rental

fee of

10t

dollars. The total cost of the rental consists of the rental fee plus the

dollar service fee, which yields a total cost of

25 10t+

dollars. Since the

person intends to spend a maximum of

dollars to rent the surfboard, the

total cost must be at most

dollars. Therefore, the inequality

25 10 75t+£

represents this situation.

Choice A is incorrect. This represents a situation where the rental fee, not the total

cost, is at most

dollars. Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 1

34 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

or calculation errors. Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or

calculation errors.

QUESTION 4

Choice A is correct. It’s given that

( )

9gx x=+

. Substituting

for

( )

in this

equation yields

25 9x=+

. Subtracting

from both sides of this equation yields

16 x=

. Taking the square root of each side of this equation yields

4x =±

. It

follows that

( )

25gx

= when the value of

. Only

is listed among

the choices.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceC is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceD is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 5

Choice A is correct. The total number of possible outcomes for rolling a fair

-sided die is

. The number of possible outcomes for rolling a

. The

probability of rolling a

is the number of possible outcomes for rolling a

divided by the total number of possible outcomes, or

Choice B is incorrect. This is the probability of rolling a number no greater than

Choice C is incorrect. This is the probability of rolling a number greater than

Choice D is incorrect. This is the probability of rolling a number other than

QUESTION 6

The correct answer is

2,520

. There are

minutes in one hour. At a rate of

posters per minute, the number of posters produced in one hour can be

determined by

( )( )

42 posters 60 minutes

1 minute 1 hou r

, which is

2,520

posters per hour.

QUESTION 7

The correct answer is

. The value of

( )

when

4x =

can be found

by substituting

for

in the given equation

( )

72fx x=+

. This yields

( ) ( )

4 74 2f =+

, or

( )

4 30f =

. Therefore, when

4x =

, the value of

( )

QUESTION 8

Choice D is correct. Since

represents the number of

-point questions and

represents the number of

-point questions, the assignment is worth a total



13xy+

, or

3xy+

, points. Since the assignment is worth

points, the

equation

3 70xy+=

represents this situation.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice B is incorrect

and may result from conceptual errors. Choice C is incorrect and may result from

conceptual errors.

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 1

35 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 9

Choice B is correct. It’s given that triangle

LMN

is similar to triangle

PQR

Corresponding angles of similar triangles are congruent. Since angle

and

angle

correspond to each other, they must be congruent. Therefore, if the

measure of angle

, then the measure of angle

is also

Choice A is incorrect and may result from concluding that angle

and angle

are complementary rather than congruent. Choice C is incorrect and may result

from concluding that angle

and angle

are supplementary rather than

congruent. Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation

errors.

QUESTION 10

Choice C is correct. The given system of linear equations can be solved by the

substitution method. Substituting

for

from the first equation in the given

system into the second equation yields

( )

4 3 15xx+- =

, or

15x =

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceB is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceD is incorrect. This is the absolute value of

, not the value of

QUESTION 11

Choice B is correct. The equation representing a linear model can be written in

the form

y a bx=+

, or

y bx a=+

, where

is the slope of the graph of the model

and

( )

0,a

is the y-intercept of the graph of the model. The scatterplot shows

that as the x-values of the data points increase, the y-values of the data points

decrease, which means the graph of an appropriate linear model has a negative

slope. Therefore,

< . The scatterplot also shows that the data points are close

to the y-axis at a positive value of

. Therefore, the y-intercept of the graph of

an appropriate linear model has a positive y-coordinate, which means

0a >

. Of

the given choices, only choice B,

1.9 10.1yx=- +

, has a negative value for

, the

slope, and a positive value for

, the y-coordinate of the y-intercept.

Choice A is incorrect. The graph of this model has a y-intercept with a negative

y-coordinate, not a positive y-coordinate. Choice C is incorrect. The graph of this

model has a positive slope, not a negative slope, and a y-intercept with a negative

y-coordinate, not a positive y-coordinate. Choice D is incorrect. The graph of this

model has a positive slope, not a negative slope.

QUESTION 12

Choice C is correct. If a value of

satisfies

( )

0fx=

, the graph of

( )

y fx

= will

contain a point

( )

,0x

and thus touch the x-axis. Since there are

points at which

this graph touches the x-axis, there are

values of

for which

( )

0fx=

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceB is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceD is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 1

36 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 13

The correct answer is

. The number of cupcakes Vivian bought can be found

by first finding the amount Vivian spent on cupcakes. The amount Vivian spent

on cupcakes can be found by subtracting the amount Vivian spent on party hats

from the total amount Vivian spent. The amount Vivian spent on party hats can

be found by multiplying the cost per package of party hats by the number of

packages of party hats, which yields



$3 10

, or

$30

. Subtracting the amount

Vivian spent on party hats,

$30

, from the total amount Vivian spent,

$71

, yields

$71 $30-

, or

$41

. Since the amount Vivian spent on cupcakes was

$41

and each

cupcake cost

, it follows that Vivian bought

cupcakes.

QUESTION 14

The correct answer is either

12-

. The left-hand side of the given equation

can be rewritten by factoring. The two values that multiply to

24-

and add

are

and

. It follows that the given equation can be rewritten as

( )( )

12 2 0zz+ -=

. Setting each factor equal to

yields two equations:

12 0z +=

and

20z -=

. Subtracting

from both sides of the equation

12 0z +=

results

12z =-

. Adding

to both sides of the equation

20z -=

results in

2z =

. Note

that 2 and -12 are examples of ways to enter a correct answer.

QUESTION 15

Choice D is correct. Let

represent the number of cells per milliliter

hours

after the initial observation. Since the number of cells per milliliter doubles every

hours, the relationship between

and

can be represented by an

exponential equation of the form

( )

y ab=

, where

is the number of cells

per milliliter during the initial observation and the number of cells per milliliter

increases by a factor of

every

hours. It’s given that there were

300,000

cells

per milliliter during the initial observation. Therefore,

300,000a =

. It’s also given

that the number of cells per milliliter doubles, or increases by a factor of

, every

hours. Therefore,

2b =

and

3k =

. Substituting

300,000

for

, and

for

in the equation

( )

y ab=

yields

( )

300,000 2

y =

. The number

of cells per milliliter there will be

hours after the initial observation is the

value of

in this equation when

15x =

. Substituting

for

in the equation

( )

300,000 2

y =

yields

( )

300,000 2y

= , or

( )

300,000 2y

= . This is equivalent

to

( )

300,000 32y =

, or

9,600,000y =

. Therefore,

hours after the initial

observation, there will be

9,600,000

cells per milliliter.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceB is incorrectand may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceC is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 1

37 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

QUESTION 16

Choice C is correct. Since each term of the given expression has a common

factor of

6xy

, it may be rewritten as

( )

22 6 22

6 62xy x xy+

, or

( )

22 6

62xy x +

Choice A is incorrect. This expression is equivalent to

12xy

, not

82 22

6 12xy xy+

Choice B is incorrect. This expression is equivalent to

6xy

, not

82 22

6 12xy xy+

Choice D is incorrect. This expression is equivalent to

62 22

6 12xy xy+

, not

82 22

6 12xy xy+

QUESTION 17

Choice A is correct. It’s given that a neighborhood consists of a

-hectare

park and a

-hectare residential area and that the total number of trees in

the neighborhood is

3,934

. It’s also given that the equation

2 35 3,934xy+=

represents this situation. Since the total number of trees for a given area can

be determined by taking the number of hectares times the average number of

trees per hectare, this must mean that the terms

and

35y

correspond to the

number of trees in the park and in the residential area, respectively. Since

corresponds to the number of trees in the park, and

is the size of the park, in

hectares,

must represent the average number of trees per hectare in the park.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice C is incorrect

and may result from conceptual errors. Choice D is incorrect and may result from

conceptual errors.

QUESTION 18

Choice B is correct. The graph shown is a line passing through the points

( )

0,40

and

( )

60,0

. Since the relationship between

and

is linear, if two points

on the graph make a linear equation true, then the equation represents the

relationship.Substituting

for

and

for

in the equation in choiceB,

8 12 480xy+=

, yields

( ) ( )

8 0 12 40 480+=

, or

480 480=

, which is true.

Substituting

for

and

for

in the equation

8 12 480xy+=

yields

( ) ( )

8 60 12 0 480+=

, or

480 480=

, which is true. Therefore, the equation

8 12 480xy+=

represents the relationship between

and

Choice A is incorrect. The point

( )

0,40

is not on the graph of this equation, since

( )

40 8 0 12=+

, or

40 12=

, is not true. Choice C is incorrect. The point

( )

0,40

is not on the graph of this equation, since

( )

40 12 0 8=+

, or

40 8=

, is not true.

Choice D is incorrect. The point

( )

0,40

is not on the graph of this equation, since

( ) ( )

12 0 8 40 480+=

, or

320 480

= , is not true.

QUESTION 19

Choice D is correct. The area of a circle can be found by using the formula

Ar=

, where

is the area and

is the radius of the circle. It’s given that the

radius of circle A is

. Substituting this value for

into the formula

Ar=

gives

( )

3An=

, or

9 n

. It’s also given that the radius of circle B is

129n

Substituting this value for

into the formula

Ar=

gives

( )

129An=

, or

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 1

38 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

16,641 n

. Dividing the area of circle B by the area of circle A gives

16,641

which simplifies to

1,849

. Therefore, the area of circle B is

1,849

times the area of

circle A.

Choice A is incorrect. This is how many times greater the radius of circle B is than

the radius of circle A. Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or

calculation errors. Choice C is incorrect. This is the coefficient on the term that

describes the radius of circle B.

QUESTION 20

The correct answer is

. The maximum value is the largest value in the data

set. The frequency refers to the number of times a data value occurs. The given

frequency table shows that for this data set, the data value

occurs three times,

the data value

occurs three times, the data value

occurs eight times, the

data value

occurs eight times, the data value

occurs nine times, the data

value

occurs eleven times, the data value

occurs nine times, the data value

occurs zero times, and the data value

occurs six times. Therefore, the

maximum data value in the data set is

QUESTION 21

The correct answer is

. The standard form of an equation of a circle in the

xy-plane is

( ) ( )

xh yk r- +- =

, where

, and

are constants, the

coordinates of the center of the circle are

( )

,hk

, and the length of the radius of

the circle is

. It′s given that an equation of the circle is

( ) ( )

29x yr- +- =

Therefore, the center of this circle is

( )

2,9

. It’s given that the endpoints of a

diameter of the circle are

( )

2,4

and

( )

2,14

. The length of the radius is the distance

from the center of the circle to an endpoint of a diameter of the circle, which can

be found using the distance formula,

( ) ( )

12 12

xx yy- +-

. Substituting the

center of the circle

( )

2,9

and one endpoint of the diameter

( )

2,4

in this formula

gives a distance of

( ) ( )

22 94- +-

, or

05+

, which is equivalent to

. Since

the distance from the center of the circle to an endpoint of a diameter is

, the

value of

QUESTION 22

Choice C is correct. It’s given that the measure of angle

radians, and

the measure of angle

radians greater than the measure of angle

Therefore, the measure of angle

is equal to

ππ

3 12

radians. Multiplying

to get a common denominator with

yields

. Therefore,

ππ

3 12

equivalent to

ππ

12 12

, or

. Therefore, the measure of angle

radians.

The measure of angle

, in degrees, can be found by multiplying its measure, in

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 1

39 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

radians, by

180

. This yields

13 180

, which is equivalent to

195

degrees.

Therefore, the measure of angle

195

degrees.

Choice A is incorrect. This is the number of degrees that the measure of angle

is greater than the measure of angle

. Choice B is incorrect. This is the measure

of angle

, in degrees. Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or

calculation errors.

QUESTION 23

Choice D is correct. Since the number of yards in

mile is

1,760

, the number of

square yards in

square mile is

( )( )

1,760 1,760 3,097,600=

. Therefore, if the area

of the town is

4.36

square miles, it is

( )

4.36 3,097,600 13,505,536

= , in square

yards.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from dividing the number of yards in a mile

by the square mileage of the town. Choice B is incorrect and may result from

multiplying the number of yards in a mile by the square mileage of the town.

Choice C is incorrect and may result from dividing the number of square yards in a

square mile by the square mileage of the town.

QUESTION 24

Choice D is correct. The equation of line

can be written in slope-intercept form

y mx b=+

, where

is the slope of the line and

( )

0,b

is the y-intercept of the

line. It’s given that line

contains the points

( )

18,130

( )

23,160

, and

( )

26,178

Therefore, its slope

can be found as

160 130

23 18

, or

. Substituting

for

in the

equation

y mx b=+

yields

6y xb=+

. Substituting

130

for

and

for

in this equation yields

( )

130 6 18 b=+

, or

130 108 b=+

. Subtracting

108

from

both sides of this equation yields

22 b=

. Substituting

for

6y xb=+

yields

6 22yx=+

. Since line

is the result of translating line

down

units, an

equation of line

6 22 5yx=+-

, or

6 17yx=+

. Substituting

for

in this

equation yields

0 6 17x=+

. Solving this equation for

yields

x =-

. Therefore,

the x-intercept of line

is

( )

,0-

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceB is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceC is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 25

Choice C is correct. In the xy-plane, the graph of the line

yc=

is a horizontal

line that crosses the y-axis at

yc=

and the graph of the quadratic equation

9 100yx x=- + -

is a parabola. A parabola can intersect a horizontal line at

exactly one point only at its vertex. Therefore, the value of

should be equal to

the y-coordinate of the vertex of the graph of the given equation. For a quadratic

equation in vertex form,

( )

y ax h k= -+

, the vertex of its graph in the xy-plane is

( )

,hk

. The given quadratic equation,

9 100yx x=- + -

, can be rewritten as

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 1

40 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

( ) ( ) ( )

999

222

2 100yx x

æö

=- - + + -

èø

, or

( ) ( )

9 319

yx=- - + -

. Thus, the value of

is equal to

319

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceB is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceD is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 26

Choice B is correct. The two given equations are equivalent because the second

equation can be obtained from the first equation by multiplying each side of the

equation by

. Thus, the graphs of the equations are coincident, so if a point

lies on the graph of one of the equations, it also lies on the graph of the other

equation. A point

( )

,xy

lies on the graph of an equation in the xy-plane if and only

if this point represents a solution to the equation. It is sufficient, therefore, to find

the point that represents a solution to the first given equation. Substituting the

x- and y-coordinates of choice B,

and

, for

and

, respectively, in the

first equation yields

( )

2 37

r-++ =

, which is equivalent to

3 73 7rr- ++ =

, or

77=

. Therefore, the point

( )

r-+

represents a solution to the first equation

and thus lies on the graph of each equation in the xy-plane for the given system.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceC is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceD is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 27

The correct answer is

104

. An equilateral triangle is a triangle in which all three

sides have the same length and all three angles have a measure of

. The

height of the triangle,

, is the length of the altitude from one vertex. The

altitude divides the equilateral triangle into two congruent 30-60-90right

triangles, where the altitude is the side across from the

angle in each30-60-

90right triangle. Since the altitude has a length of

, it follows from the

properties of30-60-90right triangles that the side across from each

angle

has a length of

and each hypotenuse has a length of

. In this case, the

hypotenuse of each30-60-90right triangle is a side of the equilateral triangle;

therefore, each side length of the equilateral triangle is

. The perimeter of a

triangle is the sum of the lengths of each side. It’s given that the perimeter of the

equilateral triangle is

624

; therefore,

2 2 2 624kkk++=

, or

6 624k =

. Dividing

both sides of this equation by

yields

104k =

.

41 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 2

Math

Module 2

(27 questions)

QUESTION 1

Choice A is correct. It’s given that Tilly earns

dollars for every

hours of

work. This can be represented by the proportion

. The amount of money,

, Tilly

earns for

39w

hours of work can be found by setting up the proportion

This can be rewritten as

39pw xw=

. Dividing both sides by

results in

39xp=

.

Choice B is incorrect. This is the amount of money Tilly earns in dollars per hour,

not the amount of money Tilly earns for

39w

hours of work. Choice C is incorrect.

This is the amount of money Tilly earns for

hours of work plus

, not the

amount of money Tilly earns for

39w

hours of work. Choice D is incorrect. This is

the amount of money Tilly earns for

hours of work minus

, not the amount of

money Tilly earns for

39w

hours of work.

QUESTION 2

Choice D is correct. It′s given that Juan rides his bike at an average rate of

5.7

minutes per mile. The number of minutes it will take Juan to ride

miles can

be determined by multiplying his average rate by the number of miles,

, which

yields

5.7x

. Therefore, the function

( )

5.7mx x=

models the number of minutes it

will take Juan to ride

miles.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors.Choice B is incorrect

and may result from conceptual errors.Choice C is incorrect and may result from

conceptual errors.

QUESTION 3

Choice B is correct. Adding the second equation in the given system to the first

equation in the given system yields

( ) ( )

3 3 12 6x xy+- + = +-

, which is equivalent

6y =

.

42 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 2

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceC is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceD is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 4

Choice D is correct. In the given equation,

is the speed, in miles per hour, of a

certain car

seconds after it began to accelerate. Therefore, the speed of the

car, in miles per hour,

seconds after it began to accelerate can be found by

substituting

for

in the given equation, which yields

( )

40 3 5s =+

, or

55s =

Thus, the speed of the car

seconds after it began to accelerate is

miles per

hour.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceB is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceC is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 5

Choice D is correct. By the Pythagorean theorem, if a right triangle has a

hypotenuse with length

and legs with lengths

and

, then

222

cab=+

. In

the right triangle shown, the hypotenuse has length

and the legs have lengths

and

. It’s given that

4a =

and

5b =

. Substituting

for

and

for

in the

Pythagorean theorem yields

2 22

45c =+

. Taking the square root of both sides of

this equation yields

45c =± +

. Since the length of a side of a triangle must be

positive, the value of

is

45+

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceB is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceC is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 6

The correct answer is

. Subtracting

from both sides of the given equation

yields

4 160x =

. Dividing both sides of this equation by

yields

40x =

Therefore, the solution to the given equation is

QUESTION 7

The correct answer is

. It’s given that the x-intercept of the graph shown is

( )

,0x

The graph passes through the point

( )

7,0

. Therefore, the value of

.

QUESTION 8

Choice B is correct. The y-intercept of the graph of a function in the xy-plane is

the point on the graph where

0x =

. It′s given that

( )

2fx x=-

. Substituting

for

in this equation yields

( )

0 02f =-

, or

( )

02f =-

. Since it′s given that

( )

y fx=

, it follows that

2y =-

when

0x =

. Therefore, the y-intercept of the

graph of

( )

y fx=

in the xy-plane is

( )

0, 2-

43 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 2

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceC is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceD is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 9

Choice D is correct. If the graph of

( )

y gx=

is the result of shifting the graph

( )

y fx

= down

units in the xy-plane, the function

can be defined by an

equation of the form

( ) ( )

gx fx k=-

. It’s given that

( )

7fx x=

and the graph of

( )

y gx=

is the result of shifting the graph of

( )

y fx

= down

units. Substituting

for

( )

and

for

in the equation

( ) ( )

gx fx k=-

yields

( )

72gx x=-

.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice B is incorrect

and may result from conceptual errors. Choice C is incorrect. This equation

defines a function

for which the graph of

( )

y gx=

is the result of shifting the

graph of

( )

y fx

= up, not down,

units.

QUESTION 10

Choice A is correct. The solution to a system of equations is the ordered pair

( )

,xy

that satisfies all equations in the system. It’s given by the first equation in

the system that

7 10x +=

. Substituting

for

7x +

into the second equation

yields

10 y=

, or

100y =

. The x-coordinate of the solution to the system

of equations can be found by subtracting

from both sides of the equation

7 10x +=

, which yields

. Therefore, the ordered pair

( )

3, 100

is a solution to

the given system of equations.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceC is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceD is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 11

Choice A is correct. Applying the distributive property, the given expression can

be written as

7 76 3x xx x+- +

. Grouping like terms in this expression yields

( )

7 6 73x x xx- ++

. Combining like terms in this expression yields

10xx+

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceC is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceD is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 12

Choice A is correct. It’s given that

( )

7pn n=

. Substituting

for

( )

in this

equation yields

56 7n=

. Dividing each side of this equation by

yields

8 n=

Taking the cube root of each side of this equation yields

2 n=

. Therefore, when

( )

is equal to

, the value of

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceC is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceD is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

44 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 2

QUESTION 13

The correct answer is

. Based on the figure, the angle with measure

110

and

the angle vertical to the angle with measure

are same side interior angles.

Since vertical angles are congruent, the angle vertical to the angle with measure

also has measure

. It’s given that lines

and

are parallel. Therefore, same

side interior angles between lines

and

are supplementary. It follows that

110 180x +=

. Subtracting

110

from both sides of this equation yields

70x =

QUESTION 14

The correct answer is

. The mean of a data set is calculated by dividing the sum

of the data values by the number of data values in the data set. For this data set,

the mean can be calculated as

6 8 16 4 17 26 8 5 5 5

++ ++ + ++++

, which is equivalent to

100

, or

QUESTION 15

Choice A is correct. For an exponential function of the form

( ) ( )

Et ab=

, where

and

are constants, the initial value of the function—that is, the value of the

function when

0t =

—is

and the value of the function increases by a factor

each time

increases by

. Since the function

( ) ( )

5 1.8

Et=

gives the

estimated number of employees at a restaurant and

is the number of years

since the restaurant opened, the best interpretation of the number

in this

context is the estimated number of employees when

0t =

, or when the restaurant

opened.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice C is incorrect

and may result from conceptual errors. Choice D is incorrect and may result from

conceptual errors.

QUESTION 16

Choice B is correct. For a quadratic function defined by an equation of the form

( ) ( )

gx ax h k= -+

, where

, and

are constants and

0a >

, the minimum

value of the function is

. In the given function,

1a =

0h =

, and

55k =

. Therefore,

the minimum value of the given function is

Choice A is incorrect. This is the value of

for which the given function reaches

its minimum value, not the minimum value of the function. Choice C is incorrect

and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice D is incorrect and

may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 17

Choice C is correct. Because the value of the investment increases each

year, the function that best models how the value of the investment changes

over time is an increasing function. It′s given that each year, the value of the

investment increases by

0.49%

of its value the previous year. Since the value of

the investment changes by a fixed percentage each year, the function that best

45 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 2

models how the value of the investment changes over time is an exponential

function. Therefore, the function that best models how the value of the

investment changes over time is an increasing exponential function.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice B is incorrect

and may result from conceptual errors. Choice D is incorrect and may result from

conceptual errors.

QUESTION 18

Choice C is correct. Let

be the 2015 population of Greenville. It’s given that

the population increased by

from 2015 to 2016. The increase in population

can be written as

( )

0.07 x

. The 2016 population of Greenville is given as the sum

of the 2015 population of Greenville and the increase in population from 2015 to

2016. This can be rewritten as

( )

0.07xx+

, or

1.07x

. Therefore, the value of

1.07

Choice A is incorrect. This is the percent, represented as a decimal, that the

population increased from 2015 to 2016, not the value of

. Choice B is incorrect

and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice D is incorrect. This is

the value of

if the population increased by

70%

, not

, from 2015 to 2016.

QUESTION 19

Choice B is correct. Since

, multiplying the exponent of the given expression

yields an equivalent expression:

11 12 132

12 12 144

æöæö æ ö

÷÷ ÷

çç ç

÷÷ ÷

çç ç

÷÷ ÷

çç ç

÷÷ ÷

çç ç

èøèø è ø

. Since

( )

132

144

132=

, the

expression

132

144

can be rewritten as

( )

132

144

æö

èø

. Applying properties of exponents,

this expression can be rewritten as

( )

132

144

. An expression of the form

( )

where

0m >

and

0k >

, is equivalent to

. Therefore,

( )

132

144

is equivalent to

144

132

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceC is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceD is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 20

The correct answer is

. The total cost of the party is found by adding the

onetime fee of the venue to the cost per attendee times the number of attendees.

Let

be the number of attendees. The expression

35 10.25x+

thus represents

the total cost of the party. It’s given that the budget is

$200

, so this situation

can be represented by the inequality

35 10.25 200x+£

. The greatest number of

attendees can be found by solving this inequality for

. Subtracting

from both

sides of this inequality gives

10.25 165x £

. Dividing both sides of this inequality

10.25

results in approximately

16.098x £

. Since the question is stated in

terms of attendees, rounding

down to the nearest whole number,

, gives the

greatest number of attendees possible.

46 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 2

QUESTION 21

The correct answer is

. The given absolute value equation can be rewritten

as two linear equations:

4 4 112x -=

and

( )

4 4 112x- -=

, or

4 4 112x - =-

Adding

to both sides of the equation

4 4 112x -=

results in

4 116x =

. Dividing

both sides of this equation by

results in

29x =

. Adding

to both sides of the

equation

4 4 112x - =-

results in

4 108x =-

. Dividing both sides of this equation

results in

27x =-

. Therefore, the two values of

1x -

are

29 1-

, or

, and

27 1--

, or

28-

. Thus, the positive value of

1x -

Alternate approach: The given equation can be rewritten as

( )

4 1 112x -=

, which

is equivalent to

4 1 112x -=

. Dividing both sides of this equation by

yields

1 28x -=

. This equation can be rewritten as two linear equations:

1 28x -=

and

( )

1 28x- -=

, or

1 28x - =-

. Therefore, the positive value of

1x -

QUESTION 22

Choice A is correct. The volume of a cube can be found by using the formula

Vs=

, where

is the volume and

is the edge length of the cube. Therefore,

the volume of the given cube is

68V =

, or

314,432

cubic inches. The volume

of a sphere can be found by using the formula

Vr=

, where

is the volume

and

is the radius of the sphere. Therefore, the volume of the given sphere is

( )

34V =

, or approximately

164,636

cubic inches. The volume of the space

in the cube not taken up by the sphere is the difference between the volume of

the cube and volume of the sphere. Subtracting the approximate volume of the

sphere from the volume of the cube gives

314,432 164,636 149,796-=

cubic

inches.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceC is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceD is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 23

Choice B is correct. The standard form of an equation of a circle in the xy-plane

is

( ) ( )

,xh yk r- +- =

where the coordinates of the center of the circle are

( )

,hk

and the length of the radius of the circle is

. For the circle in the xy-plane

with equation

( ) ( )

5 3 16xy- +- =

, it follows that

16r =

. Taking the square root

of both sides of this equation yields

4r =

4r =-

. Because

represents the

length of the radius of the circle and this length must be positive,

4r =

. Therefore,

the radius of the circle is

. The diameter of a circle is twice the length of the

radius of the circle. Thus,

( )

yields

. Therefore, the diameter of the circle is

Choice A is incorrect. This is the radius of the circle.Choice C is incorrect. This is

the square of the radius of the circle.Choice D is incorrect and may result from

conceptual or calculation errors.

47 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 2

QUESTION 24

Choice C is correct. For the form of the function in choice C,

( ) ( )

128 1.6

the value of

( )

can be found as

( )

128 1.6

, which is equivalent to

( )

128 1.6

, or

128

. Therefore,

128k =

, which is shown in

( ) ( )

128 1.6

as the coefficient.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceB is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceD is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 25

Choice B is correct. Since the model estimates that the number of squirrels in

the population increased by a fixed percentage,

150%

, each year, the model can

be represented by an exponential equation of the form

( )

100

na=+

, where

is the estimated number of squirrels in the population at the end of

2015

, and

the model estimates that at the end of each year, the number is

more than

the number at the end of the previous year. Since the model estimates that at the

end of each year, the number was

150%

more than the number at the end of the

previous year,

150p =

. Substituting

150

for

in the equation

( )

100

na=+

yields

( )

150

100

na=+

, which is equivalent to

( )

1 1.5

na=+

, or

( )

2.5

na=

. It’s given

that the estimated number of squirrels at the end of

2016

was

180

. This means

that when

1t =

180n =

. Substituting

for

and

180

for

in the equation

( )

2.5

na=

yields

( )

180 2.5a=

, or

180 2.5a=

. Dividing each side of this equation

2.5

yields

72 a=

. Substituting

for

in the equation

( )

2.5

na=

yields

( )

72 2.5

n =

Choice A is incorrect. This equation represents a model where at the end of each

year, the estimated number of squirrels was

150%

of, not

150%

more than, the

estimated number at the end of the previous year. Choice C is incorrect. This

equation represents a model where at the end of each year, the estimated number

of squirrels was

150%

of, not

150%

more than, the estimated number at the end

of the previous year, and the estimated number of squirrels at the end of

2015

not the end of

2016

, was

180

. Choice D is incorrect. This equation represents a

model where the estimated number of squirrels at the end of

2015

, not the end of

2016

, was

180

48 SAT PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

MATH: MODULE 2

QUESTION 26

Choice B is correct. Two lines are perpendicular if their slopes are negative

reciprocals, meaning that the slope of the first line is equal to

divided by the

slope of the second line. Each equation in the given pair of equations can be

written in slope-intercept form,

y mx b=+

, where

is the slope of the graph of

the equation in the xy-plane and

( )

0,b

is the y-intercept. For the first equation,

571xy+=

, subtracting

from both sides gives

7 51yx=- +

, and dividing both

sides of this equation by

gives

yx=- +

. Therefore, the slope of the graph

of this equation is

. For the second equation,

1ax by+=

, subtracting

from

both sides gives

1by ax=- +

, and dividing both sides of this equation by

gives

yx=- +

. Therefore, the slope of the graph of this equation is

. Since the

graph of the given pair of equations is a pair of perpendicular lines, the slope of

the graph of the second equation,

, must be the negative reciprocal of the

slope of the graph of the first equation,

. The negative reciprocal of

is

æö

èø

, or

. Therefore,

,or

. Similarly, rewriting the equations

in choice B in slope-intercept form yields

10 1

yx=- +

and

yx=- +

. It

follows that the slope of the graph of the first equation in choice B is

and the

slope of the graph of the second equation in choice B is

. Since

is equal to

( )

, or

. Since

is the negative reciprocal of

, the pair of

equations in choice B represents a pair of perpendicular lines.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceC is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

ChoiceD is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 27

The correct answer is

289

. A quadratic equation of the form

0ax bx c+ +=

where

, and

are constants, has no real solutions when the value of the

discriminant,

4b ac-

, is less than

. In the given equation,

34 0x xc- +=

1a =

and

34b =-

. Therefore, the discriminant of the given equation can be expressed

( ) ( )( )

34 4 1 c--

, or

1,156 4c-

. It follows that the given equation has no real

solutions when

1,156 4 0c-<

. Adding

to both sides of this inequality yields

1,156 4c<

. Dividing both sides of this inequality by

yields

289 c<

, or

289c >

It’s given that the equation

34 0x xc- +=

has no real solutions when

cn>

Therefore, the least possible value of

289

Scoring Your Paper

SAT Practice Test #1

IMPORTANT: This guide is for students who completed a paper version of the digital SAT practice test.

The scoring method used for this nondigital version isn’t exactly the same as the digital version.

Congratulations on completing an SAT

practice test.

To score your test, follow the instructions in this guide.

Scores Overview

Each assessment in the SAT Suite (SAT, PSAT/NMSQT®, PSAT

™

10, and PSAT

™

8/9) reports test

scores on a common scale.

For more details about scores, visit sat.org/scores.

The College Board Assessment Design & Development team developed the practice tests

using the same processes and review standards they used when developing the actual SAT.

1 Total Score

400–1600 Scale

Reading

and Writing

Modules 1 & 2 Modules 1 & 2

Math

Total Score

2 Section

Scores

200–800 Scale

How to Calculate Your Practice Test Scores

The worksheets on pages 4 and 5 help you calculate your test scores.

GET SET UP

In addition to your practice test, you’ll need the

conversion tables and answer key at the end of

this guide.

Have your students make time to take

the practice test.

It is one of the best ways to get ready

for the SAT.

The SAT

Practice Test for

Classroom Use

SAT Practice Test Worksheet:

Section and Total Scores

RAW SCORE

Reading and Writing

Section Score

Math

Section Score

(# OF CORRECT ANSWERS) LOWER UPPER LOWER UPPER

0 200 200 200 200

1 200 200 200 200

2 200 200 200 200

3 200 200 200 200

4 200 200 200 200

5 200 200 200 200

6 200 200 200 200

7 200 210 200 220

8 210 230 200 230

9 220 240 220 250

10 230 250 250 280

11 250 270 270 300

12 260 280 290 320

13 280 300 300 330

14 290 310 310 340

15 300 320 320 350

16 330 350 330 360

17 350 370 340 370

18 360 380 350 380

19 370 390 360 390

20 380 400 370 400

21 390 410 380 410

22 400 420 400 430

23 410 430 410 440

24 420 440 420 450

25 430 450 430 460

26 430 450 440 470

27 440 460 450 480

28 450 470 460 490

29 460 480 470 500

30 460 480 480 510

31 470 490 490 520

32 480 500 510 540

33 490 510 520 550

RAW SCORE

Reading and Writing

Section Score

Math

Section Score

(# OF CORRECT ANSWERS) LOWER UPPER LOWER UPPER

34 490 510 530 560

35 500 520 540 570

36 510 530 550 580

37 520 540 560 590

38 520 540 570 600

39 530 550 590 620

40 540 560 600 630

41 550 570 610 640

42 550 570 620 650

43 560 580 630 660

44 570 590 640 670

45 570 590 660 690

46 580 600 670 700

47 590 610 690 720

48 590 610 700 730

49 600 620 720 750

50 610 630 740 770

51 610 630 760 790

52 620 640 770 790

53 630 650 790 800

54 640 660 800 800

55 640 660

56 650 670

57 660 680

58 670 690

59 680 700

60 690 710

61 700 720

62 710 730

63 720 740

64 740 760

65 770 780

66 790 800

READING AND

WRITING SECTION

MODULE 1

RAW SCORE

(0-27)

READING AND

WRITING SECTION

MODULE 2

RAW SCORE

(0-27)

READING AND

WRITING

RAW SCORE

(0–54)

READING AND

WRITING

SECTION SCORE



MATH SECTION

MODULE 1

RAW SCORE

(0-22)

MATH SECTION

MODULE 2

RAW SCORE

(0-22)

MATH SECTION

RAW SCORE



TOTAL

SAT SCORE



+ =

CONVERT

MATH

SECTION SCORE



READING AND WRITING

SECTION SCORE



Raw Score Conversion Table: Section Scores

Conversion:

Calculate Your Section and Total Scores

Use the table at the bottom of this page to convert your raw scores from

the previous worksheet into section and test scores.



SCORE YOUR PRACTICE TEST



Compare your answers to the answer key on

page 4, and count your total correct answers

for each section. Write the number of correct

answers for each section in the answer key

at the bottom of that section.

SAT Practice Test Worksheet:

Answer Key

Mark each of your correct answers below, then add them up to get your raw score on each module.

Math

Module 1 Module 2

Reading and Writing

Module 1 Module 2

MATH SECTION

RAW SCORE

(Total # of Correct Answers)

READING AND WRITING SECTION

RAW SCORE

(Total # of Correct Answers)

QUESTION #

CORRECT

MARK YOUR

CORRECT

ANSWERS

1 B

2 C

3 D

4 A

5 B

6 A

7 A

8 D

9 C

10 C

11 A

12 A

13 A

14 C

15 D

16 C

17 B

18 B

19 A

20 A

21 C

22 C

23 B

24 A

25 B

26 A

27 A

28 A

29 D

30 C

31 D

32 D

33 C

QUESTION #

CORRECT

MARK YOUR

CORRECT

ANSWERS

1 B

2 D

3 A

4 D

5 D

6 B

7 D

8 A

9 B

10 D

11 D

12 A

13 B

14 A

15 A

16 C

17 A

18 D

19 C

20 B

21 C

22 D

23 D

24 C

25 B

26 D

27 C

28 D

29 A

30 C

31 B

32 B

33 D

QUESTION #

CORRECT

MARK YOUR

CORRECT

ANSWERS

1 B

2 C

3 D

4 A

5 A

6 2520

7 30

8 D

9 B

10 C

11 B

12 C

13 41

14 2;-12

15 D

16 C

17 A

18 B

19 D

20 14

21 5

22 C

23 D

24 D

25 C

26 B

27 104

QUESTION #

CORRECT

MARK YOUR

CORRECT

ANSWERS

1 A

2 D

3 B

4 D

5 D

6 40

7 7

8 B

9 D

10 A

11 A

12 A

13 70

14 10

15 A

16 B

17 C

18 C

19 B

20 16

21 28

22 A

23 B

24 C

25 B

26 B

27 289

CALCULATE YOUR SCORES



Using your marked-up answer key and the

conversion tables, follow the directions on

page 5 to get your section and test scores.

SAT Practice Test Worksheet:

Section and Total Scores

RAW SCORE

Reading and Writing

Section Score

Math

Section Score

(# OF CORRECT ANSWERS) LOWER UPPER LOWER UPPER

0 200 200 200 200

1 200 200 200 200

2 200 200 200 200

3 200 200 200 200

4 200 200 200 200

5 200 200 200 200

6 200 200 200 200

7 200 210 200 220

8 210 230 200 230

9 220 240 220 250

10 230 250 250 280

11 250 270 270 300

12 260 280 290 320

13 280 300 300 330

14 290 310 310 340

15 300 320 320 350

16 330 350 330 360

17 350 370 340 370

18 360 380 350 380

19 370 390 360 390

20 380 400 370 400

21 390 410 380 410

22 400 420 400 430

23 410 430 410 440

24 420 440 420 450

25 430 450 430 460

26 430 450 440 470

27 440 460 450 480

28 450 470 460 490

29 460 480 470 500

30 460 480 480 510

31 470 490 490 520

32 480 500 510 540

33 490 510 520 550

RAW SCORE

Reading and Writing

Section Score

Math

Section Score

(# OF CORRECT ANSWERS) LOWER UPPER LOWER UPPER

34 490 510 530 560

35 500 520 540 570

36 510 530 550 580

37 520 540 560 590

38 520 540 570 600

39 530 550 590 620

40 540 560 600 630

41 550 570 610 640

42 550 570 620 650

43 560 580 630 660

44 570 590 640 670

45 570 590 660 690

46 580 600 670 700

47 590 610 690 720

48 590 610 700 730

49 600 620 720 750

50 610 630 740 770

51 610 630 760 790

52 620 640 770 790

53 630 650 790 800

54 640 660 800 800

55 640 660

56 650 670

57 660 680

58 670 690

59 680 700

60 690 710

61 700 720

62 710 730

63 720 740

64 740 760

65 770 780

66 790 800

READING AND

WRITING SECTION

MODULE 1

RAW SCORE

(0-27)

READING AND

WRITING SECTION

MODULE 2

RAW SCORE

(0-27)

READING AND

WRITING

RAW SCORE

(0–54)

READING AND

WRITING

SECTION SCORE



MATH SECTION

MODULE 1

RAW SCORE

(0-22)

MATH SECTION

MODULE 2

RAW SCORE

(0-22)

MATH SECTION

RAW SCORE



TOTAL

SAT SCORE



+ =

CONVERT

MATH

SECTION SCORE



READING AND WRITING

SECTION SCORE



Raw Score Conversion Table: Section Scores

Conversion:

Calculate Your Section and Total Scores

Use the table at the bottom of this page to convert your raw scores from

the previous worksheet into section and test scores.



Get Section and

Total Scores

Your total score on an SAT practice test is the sum of your scores in the

modules for both the Reading and Writing and Math sections. To get your

total score, you’ll convert what we call the “raw score” for each section—

the number of questions you got right in that section—into the “scaled

score” for that section, and then calculate the total score.

GET YOUR READING AND WRITING SECTION SCORE

Calculate your SAT Reading and Writing section score

(it’s on a scale of 200–800).



Use the answer key on page 4 to count the number of correct

answers you got on module 1 and module 2.



To determine your Reading and Writing raw score, add the number

of correct answers you got on module 1 and module 2.



Use the Raw Score Conversion Table: Section Scores on page 5

to turn your raw score into your Reading and Writing section score.

GET YOUR MATH SECTION SCORE

Calculate your SAT Math section score (it’s on a scale of 200–800).



Use the answer key on page 4 to count the number of correct

answers you got on module 1 and module 2.



To determine your Math raw score, add the number of correct

answers you got on module 1 and module 2.



Use the Raw Score Conversion Table: Section Scores on page 5

to turn your raw score into your Math section score.

GET YOUR TOTAL SCORE

Add your Reading and Writing section score to your Math section score.

The result is your total score on the SAT practice test, on a scale of 400–1600.

1 Total Score

400–1600 Scale

2 Section

Scores

200–800 Scale

Reading

and Writing

Modules 1 & 2 Modules 1 & 2

Math

Total Score

Your total score on the SAT practice test

is the sum of your Reading and Writing

section score and your Math section score.

Use the worksheets on

pages 4 and 5 to calculate your

section and total scores.

SAT Practice Test Worksheet:

Answer Key

Mark each of your correct answers below, then add them up to get your raw score on each module.

Math

Module 1 Module 2

Reading and Writing

Module 1 Module 2

QUESTION #

CORRECT

MARK YOUR

CORRECT

ANSWERS

1 B

2 C

3 D

4 A

5 B

6 A

7 A

8 D

9 C

10 C

11 A

12 A

13 A

14 C

15 D

16 C

17 B

18 B

19 A

20 A

21 C

22 C

23 B

24 A

25 B

26 A

27 A

28 A

29 D

30 C

31 D

32 D

33 C

QUESTION #

CORRECT

MARK YOUR

CORRECT

ANSWERS

1 B

2 D

3 A

4 D

5 D

6 B

7 D

8 A

9 B

10 D

11 D

12 A

13 B

14 A

15 A

16 C

17 A

18 D

19 C

20 B

21 C

22 D

23 D

24 C

25 B

26 D

27 C

28 D

29 A

30 C

31 B

32 B

33 D

READING AND WRITING SECTION

RAW SCORE

(Total # of Correct Answers)

QUESTION #

CORRECT

MARK YOUR

CORRECT

ANSWERS

1 B

2 C

3 D

4 A

5 A

6 2520

7 30

8 D

9 B

10 C

11 B

12 C

13 41

14 2; -12

15 D

16 C

17 A

18 B

19 D

20 14

21 5

22 C

23 D

24 D

25 C

26 B

27 104

QUESTION #

CORRECT

MARK YOUR

CORRECT

ANSWERS

1 A

2 D

3 B

4 D

5 D

6 40

7 7

8 B

9 D

10 A

11 A

12 A

13 70

14 10

15 A

16 B

17 C

18 C

19 B

20 16

21 28

22 A

23 B

24 C

25 B

26 B

27 289

MATH SECTION

RAW SCORE

(Total # of Correct Answers)

SAT Practice Test Worksheet:

Section and Total Scores

Conversion:

Calculate Your Section and Total Scores

Use the table at the bottom of this page to convert your raw scores from

the previous worksheet into section and test scores.

READING AND

WRITING SECTION

MODULE 1

RAW SCORE

(0–27)

READING AND

WRITING SECTION

MODULE 2

RAW SCORE

(0–27)

READING AND

WRITING

RAW SCORE

(0–54)

CONVERT

READING AND

WRITING

SECTION SCORE

(200–800)

MATH SECTION

MODULE 1

RAW SCORE

(0–22)

MATH SECTION

MODULE 2

RAW SCORE

(0–22)

MATH SECTION

RAW SCORE

(0–44)

CONVERT

MATH

SECTION SCORE

(200–800)

READING AND WRITING

SECTION SCORE

(200–800)

TOTAL

SAT SCORE

(400–1600)

Raw Score Conversion Table: Section Scores

RAW SCORE

Reading and Writing

Section Score

Math

Section Score

(# OF CORRECT ANSWERS) LOWER UPPER LOWER UPPER

0 200 200 200 200

1 200 200 200 200

2 200 200 200 200

3 200 200 200 200

4 200 200 200 200

5 200 200 200 200

6 200 200 200 200

7 200 210 200 220

8 210 230 200 230

9 220 240 220 250

10 230 250 250 280

11 250 270 270 300

12 260 280 290 320

13 280 300 300 330

14 290 310 310 340

15 300 320 320 350

16 330 350 330 360

17 350 370 340 370

18 360 380 350 380

19 370 390 360 390

20 380 400 370 400

21 390 410 380 410

22 400 420 400 430

23 410 430 410 440

24 420

440 420 450

25 430 450 430 460

26 430 450 440 470

27 440 460 450 480

28 450 470 460 490

29 460 480 470 500

30 460 480 480 510

31 470 490 490 520

32 480 500 510 540

33 490 510 520 550

RAW SCORE

eading and Writing

ection Score

Math

Section Score

(# OF CORRECT ANSWERS) LOWER UPPER LOWER UPPER

34 490 510 530 560

35 500 520 540 570

36 510 530 550 580

37 520 540 560 590

38 520 540 570 600

39 530 550 590 620

40 540 560 600 630

41 550 570 610 640

42 550 570 620 650

43 560 580 630 660

44 570 590 640 670

45 570 590 660 690

46 580 600 670 700

47 590 610 690 720

48 590 610 700 730

49 600 620 720 750

50 610 630 740 770

51 610 630 760 790

52 620 640 770 790

53 630 650 790 800

54 640 660 800 800

55 640 660

56 650 670

57 660 680

58 670 690

59 680 700

60 690

710

61 700 720

62 710 730

63 720 740

64 740

760

65 770 780

66 790 800